Prepare for the exam in English will help ... the Internet! Training exercises to prepare for the exam in English
Oh, this wonderful school time, with its vivid (and not so) memories, teachers, subjects, last bells, which, as usual, ends with one special touching event - the last bell. Parents are worried about their child, who will soon take his first step into adulthood.
But before celebrating graduation and entering the desired university, eleventh graders are forced to play an insidious game called "USE in English". Now, what d "ya know about it?
The exam in English is passed when they enter the humanities, for example: philology or linguistics, translation studies or teaching, international relations or regional studies, etc. As you may have noticed, training in the above areas is based on a foreign language, so English is considered a core subject.
The exam itself consists of written and oral parts, which are not held on more than one day. In the first - students pass the written part, it includes: listening, reading, writing, grammar and vocabulary. In total, on this day, the graduate needs to complete 40 tasks in 180 minutes. Can you deal with that? The student can receive a maximum of 20 points for each of the sections. So, for the first day you can and should score 80 points.
The second part - the oral part of the Unified State Examination in English - takes place on a different day and is handed over at will. It lasts only 15 minutes and consists of 4 tasks. During this time, students will have to answer questions and describe pictures. On this day, the graduate can earn another +20 points.
It is logical that it makes sense to take the oral part: in case of unsuccessful answers, you do not lose anything, and in case of successful answers, you will earn additional points. Think about it! Thus, a graduate in the exam can score a maximum of 100 points. The minimum score to pass the exam is 22 points. If lower, then everything is gone! Below is the number of USE scores in English and the corresponding score:
Obviously, I would like to pass the exam with a high score, because there is a chance to enter, for example, on a budget, and receive a decent scholarship and all kinds of goodies from the state throughout the entire training.
Here are the best ways to prepare for the exam in English.
Dates of the Unified State Examination in English 2019
The approved exam schedule should be published in January 2019 (so far, it is known about the period for passing the main part of the subjects from May 28 to June 20). But today there is an opportunity to learn something interesting:
- from the second half of March to mid-April 2019, for example, an early examination will be held, from March 21 to April 4. However, not all students can take the exam early. These graduates include those who graduated from school earlier than the 2018/2019 academic year, underachieving students of previous years without a certificate, as well as students of evening schools. Those who decided not to enter the university, but to go to serve in the army, can also pass the test ahead of schedule; children leaving to live abroad; applicants of foreign universities, or those who came to study from abroad. An exception is also made for children leaving for sports, cultural or scientific competitions or competitions, as well as for schoolchildren who are scheduled for medical procedures during the main test;
- from the last days of May to the beginning of June 2019, the main period of the exam is scheduled. Wangui that the first exams will begin on May 28, 2019;
- the start of the additional USE period is announced for September 4, 2019. Additional examinations will take place during the first half of September.
Changes in the Unified State Examination in English 2019
In principle, no special innovations have been noticed at the moment. Although there are some clarifications. For example, according to the wording of the criteria, which have become more specific and unambiguous. If earlier there were questions about what is considered a violation, then from now on there will be no more such questions. Comparison:
- 2017 (the task was completed completely: the content reflects all the aspects indicated in the task (full answers were given to all questions, three questions were asked on the specified topic); the style of the speech was chosen correctly, taking into account the purpose of the statement and the addressee; the norms of politeness accepted in the language are observed);
- 2018 (the task was completed completely: the content reflects all the aspects specified in the task (full and accurate answers to all questions are given, three questions on the specified topic are correctly asked); the style of the speech is chosen correctly, taking into account the purpose of the statement and the addressee; the norms of politeness accepted in the language are observed ( 1 incomplete or inaccurate aspect allowed). The wording of task 4 in the "Speaking" block has been clarified.
Bonuses are good, but in order to successfully overcome this challenge, it is important to understand its strengths and weaknesses. Therefore, now let's talk about the structure of the exam, which is conditionally divided into four main blocks and one additional (195 minutes).
Listening Comprehension
In the first block (30 minutes), the student performs 3 tasks. The examiners turn on the recording and do not stop it until the very end, however, there are pauses between the fragments to read the tasks and transfer the answers to the form. For each correct answer in this and other parts of the exam, the student receives 1 point.
- The first task is to listen to 6 statements and correlate them with statements, one of which is redundant, that is, it will be necessary to identify the correspondence between the main ideas and audio fragments.
- In the second exercise, a dialogue and remarks are given - it is necessary to determine which statements are false (false) and which are true (true), in addition, to identify which statements were not mentioned in the text (not stated).
- In the remaining 7 tasks (No. 3-9) it is proposed to listen to the interview and mark the correct answer from the three proposed. The student listens to the audio recording and selects the correct answer for each question. For this task, you can also get a maximum of 7 points.
Adviсe: understand the meaning of the words that the announcer says. There may be hidden answers to tasks.
Reading
In the second block (also 30 minutes), the ability to analyze and extract basic information from the text is tested. It also, like Listening, consists of 3 parts (9 tasks).
- In task 10, 7 mini-texts are given (3-6 sentences in each) and 8 headings that must be selected for each text, while one heading is superfluous. Maximum points: 7.
- In task 11, taking into account cause-and-effect relationships and the logic of presentation, you have to fill in a special text with six gaps. There are 7 passages to complete. So, one extra. Maximum points: 6.
- In the remaining 7 tasks (No. 12-18) you read a short English text and 7 questions to it. For each question, 4 possible answers are given, from which you need to choose one correct one. Maximum points: 7.
Adviсe: try not to spend more than 10 minutes on 1 task; delve into the meaning of the text (look for keywords); learn / repeat how complex sentences are built; in the third task, questions after the text are arranged in the order in which they are answered in the text. That is, the answer to the first question will be at the beginning of the text, to the second question after the answer to the first, and so on.
Vocabulary and Grammar (Vocabulary & Grammar)
70% of assignments (No. 19-31) are aimed at knowledge of word formation and the school curriculum in English grammar. In the last seven (No. 32-38) exercises, you must make a choice in favor of one of the four proposed answers, taking into account the context and the desired grammatical form. For everything about everything, 40 minutes are given.
- First, a text with 7 missing words is given. To the right of it there are words that require grammatical transformation (put the verb at the right time, for example) and insertion. Max. number of points: 7.
- In the second task - a text with 6 gaps. Again, you will need to grammatically transform (to form a single-root word that fits the text in meaning) and insert words into the text. Max. number of points: 6.
- Again, the text with 7 gaps, you need to choose 1 correct option out of 4 proposed. Max. number of points: 7.
Adviсe: allocate no more than 12 minutes for all tasks (except for the second - there are 15); read the context; repeat: tenses and forms of verbs, voices (active and passive), comparative and superlative degrees of adjectives, ordinal numbers, the formation of suffixes and prefixes in English.
Written part (Writing)
In the fourth block, there are only 2 tasks (but what kind!), For which 80 minutes are given (for them you need to have time to write and check your work).
- First, an informal letter to a friend (about 100-140 words). The text of a short letter from this very “friend” is given, after which there are questions. You need to read the text with questions, and write an answer (that is, answer a friend's questions and ask your own). Max. points: 6.
- Secondly, an essay on a given topic (about 200-250 words). In this section, a statement is given (usually rather controversial), and the student writes an essay on this topic, expressing his opinion, demonstrating the learned vocabulary, knowledge of grammatical rules, the structure of various written works, and, finally, the ability to describe and argue his point of view in writing . You have to do 80 minutes. Max. number of points: 14.
Adviсe: do not write an essay on a draft in full, it is better to sketch your thoughts and ideas on it; do not forget about a high-quality introduction (description of the relevance of the problem) and conclusion; do not write addresses (even fictitious ones); look at examples of friendly letters in English on the Internet; do not forget to thank a friend for the letter (at the beginning); ask questions in a letter; love paragraphs (but not 1 sentence); use " I believe...», « I assume...», « In my opinion..."; colloquial style is also acceptable (" Guess what?», « What's up?», « Howdy!», « See ya!», « Later!»); write in a neutral style (task 2); justify and support your point of view by describing different ones; draw conclusions and draw conclusions.
Speaking
The oral part of the exam in English is not required, but speaking is necessary to get the highest possible score. This block is the shortest and only takes 15 minutes. It consists of four tasks for which you can get a total of 20 points: reading the English text aloud, asking questions to the announcement using keywords; description of the picture/photo; comparative analysis of two proposed photographs, guided by a given plan. The student submits assignments in front of a computer, which shows the countdown, and his answers are recorded. At the same time, there is an organizer in the audience who monitors the course of the exam and, at the first doubtful situation, has the right to apply firearms(jk).
- In the first task there will be a text of a near-scientific nature, which must be read aloud in the most expressive way. 1.5 minutes will be allotted for this (+1.5 for preparation). Accordingly, for the entire task - no more than 3 minutes. The task is worth 1 point.
- The second task is an advertisement for which you need to come up with 5 questions based on keywords. Preparation - 1.5 minutes, wording of each question - 20 seconds. Total - 3 minutes. Here you can earn 5 points.
- In the third task, 3 pictures/photos will be shown. We choose one and describe it according to the proposed plan. The task takes about 3.5 minutes. For successful completion, 7 points are given.
- And in the fourth task, we are again offered pictures. This time 2 that you want to compare and describe their similarities and differences. You will also need to explain why the chosen topic is close to the graduate. The number of minutes and points is equal to the number of the same in the previous task.
Adviсe: practice pronunciation and read texts on various topics with the correct intonation and expression (see YouTube for Christ's sake!); observe pauses, stress and intonation; do not forget about time and try to read clearly, but tighten; learn to ask questions to texts on different topics; know how to compose questions correctly; carefully read the assignments and answer all questions; tell which photo you chose at the beginning of the answer (“ I"ve chosen the photo number..."); most likely you will have to describe a photo of a “friend”; use speech clichés like: the 1st picture depicts ...», « whereas the 2nd shows us ...», « the main difference is that ...», « also, they have the same ...», « in comparison to the first picture, this one is ...».
English: preparation for the Unified State Examination 2019
To save your nerves, we strongly recommend that you contact us directly and try the online USE English courses or our USE preparation course in English on Skype. We will help you prepare and not fall into the mud face.
Online USE course in English.
Here you can prepare for the exam in English online!
- A unique methodology from leading teachers with the experience of the EnglishDom online school of English.
- Versatile exercise on vocabulary, grammar and listening comprehension of a native speaker's speech, divided into situational-thematic blocks.
- It is possible to practice speaking skills in role play, the voice recognition function is supported.
- Convenient and simple interface.
Peculiarities:
- More suitable for students with a high level of language who have been studying with an English-speaking or Russian-speaking teacher for a long time.
- Also, it will appeal to students who are 100% confident in their knowledge of English and are familiar with the features of the Unified State Examination in English.
- The course is aimed at self-study, therefore it is an excellent solution for repeating and updating the knowledge and structure of the exam.
- There is no teacher control, so responsibility and progress depends entirely on the motivation and interest of the student (watch out!).
USE in English in ED Class.
- Each lesson consists of two main sections: class» & « Home". In the class you will find cool workouts ( warm up) to recharge with positive emotions for the whole lesson. Next, it is proposed to familiarize yourself with the new vocabulary ( Vocabulary), a transcription and a picture are given for each word, which makes it easy to build an associative array.
- Grammar section ( Get to know) is presented in convenient tables, where exactly the information that you should pay attention to is presented in an understandable and accessible language. And its use in practice will be demonstrated by examples with voice acting below, as well as subsequent exercises to consolidate the rules in practice ( Grammar practice).
- To have fun from the heart and be ready to cope with listening in the exam, we offer to plunge into the English-speaking world and watch entertaining videos ( life stories). This is not only funny, but also useful, because. the task must contain previously learned vocabulary.
- And for dessert, sweet talking tasks in the form of a dialogue ( Role play), questions ( Discussion) and, finally, an exciting game ( Game).
Well, are you intrigued? But that's not all! In order for all the material to remain in active memory and not be lost anywhere, be sure to go through the block “ Home" at a good time for you. Repetition is the mother of learning!
Peculiarities:
- Suitable for students of any level who are going to take the exam in English.
Materials for preparing for the exam 2019 in English
To do well, you will have to spend a lot of time preparing. Keep in mind! It is necessary to plan and devote time to the preparation of each of the sections. Listening, for example. Not every school teacher devotes enough time in his lessons to teaching the perception of foreign speech by ear. Audiobooks, songs of your favorite artists, films or TV series in English dubbing will come to the rescue. Watch at least a couple of episodes of your favorite series or movie, and listen to an audiobook on your way to school.
The following resources may help you:
- A series of textbooks Macmillan Exam Skills for Russia includes books on preparation for each part of the exam. With authentic texts and assignments, this series is one of the best for preparing for exams. However, please note that the books are quite complex, so it is recommended that students with a level of at least Intermediate study with them.
- A good selection of textbooks on the exam for the past years is on this site. In addition, you can read books online. For example, there is one tempting one that promises to prepare you in a month. Basically, the resource presents training options for examination papers that can be used as practical material for preparing for the exam. Each option is provided with keys and texts for listening.
- quizlet.com and barabook.ru are convenient online services for learning new words. Create your own sets of flashcards with new words and learn them using the apps of the same name or directly on the site. Easy!
- podcastsinenglish.com, britishcouncil.org, bbc.co.uk - sites with educational podcasts in English. They, of course, do not have standard tasks for the exam, but you can train the skill of listening to speech in an interesting way and get a little distracted from the same type of tasks for the exam.
- fipi.ru is the official website of the Federal Institute of Pedagogical Measurements, which presents a large bank of standard tasks for the Unified State Examination. On the indicated page, click on the inscription "English" and in the tab that opens on the left, select the skill you want to train. There are no answers on the site, therefore, so that the efforts are not wasted, we advise you to study with the teacher and send the completed assignments to him for verification.
- "Typical exam options for the exam edited by Verbitskaya" - the book exists in various variations, includes standard exam tasks with answers. With the help of the book, you can check how well the graduate is ready for the exam.
When preparing and using the above materials, pay attention to writing an essay. Try to write at least 10 mini-essays on various topics before the exam. Inspiration can come to you after watching a good movie, for example. Download tickets from previous years and hone your writing skills. Each new essay will help you better formulate thoughts and present arguments in favor of your point of view.
By the way! If you want to learn how to correctly write an essay in English for the USE 2019, then read!
Let's look at the changes that the USE has undergone compared to last year.
Typical mistakes in preparing for the exam
The collection of the main typical mistakes in preparing for the exam in English, first of all, includes the inability to correctly distribute the preparation time. The student knows what he is having trouble with. More time should be devoted to this. Another common problem is the inability to speak. You can practice this skill by constantly playing small dialogues in your head with everyday situations, or by describing objects, people and buildings that you see on your way (to perfection) to school, cinema or supermarket.
In addition, there are the following mistakes when preparing for the English exam:
- Out-of-date tutorials or resources on the network can also significantly harm the preparation. Graduates are offered many materials that promise the best preparation. But not everyone is up to the task. It is better to use those teaching aids that professionals advise. It is definitely recommended to go to the FIPI website, where the latest data is always published.
- Inconsistent preparation. The student either does not sit down at the textbooks at all, or sits at them without rest. It is necessary to make a plan over time and strictly follow it. It is necessary to start preparing for exams from the fall of the 11th grade, and even better - from the 10th grade. The amount of knowledge is large, it takes a lot of time.
- Ignoring incomprehensible material. When preparing for an exam, you should start repeating things that are not clear. To fully assimilate the material, read the topic in the textbook, contact a tutor or your teacher, sign up for courses and find out what you do not understand, do not try to calm yourself down. With the material that you master, it will be much easier: a few days before the exam, you can quickly remember and go over all the previously weak points.
- Not comprehensive training. The teachers themselves during the lesson most often pay attention to reading and grammar, while forgetting about the correct pronunciation and perception. Alas, so far such a sad trend can be traced in many schools. It is worth remembering that all the components of the program will be presented in the exam in the tasks. And it is essential to pay attention to each.
- cramming. The complexity of the exam lies in the fact that it is designed for understanding the material, some tasks are designed for an impromptu answer. Typically, such tests allow you to get the most points and compensate for the lost ones. Having memorized all the material, you will not be able to explain similar examples that will be presented in the test. In addition, you will not have enough time to memorize the entire amount of material.
- Passing only trial texts. Yes, they are definitely needed, but do not expect that if you scored the maximum score on these, then the main exam is in your pocket. Tasks are completed in different ways, tests are mixed, becoming, in their own way, individual.
- Wrong mental attitude may interfere with the exam. The ability to concentrate and relax at the right time will help to tune in correctly. Positive thoughts also play a role. They help you get the job done. Believe in yourself, but do not drive - too much arrogance can be a treacherously insidious enemy. Everything should be in moderation.
Conclusion
Is it difficult to pass the exam in English? Not! Preparation for the exam in English is really important, because. an exam is a kind of challenge that must be approached with all responsibility. The higher the USE score, the more freedom in choosing a decent educational institution, which will subsequently help to make the dream come true and become an outstanding specialist in the field that is interesting. Do not miss the opportunity - sign up for an introductory English lesson via Skype.
Do not be afraid of difficulties, come to us, and we will help you pass the exam with the highest score! You can do that!
Big and friendly family EnglishDom
Preparation for the OGE and the Unified State Examination
Secondary general education
English language
We analyze the exam in English: the section "Grammar"
We analyze the tasks of the “Grammar” part together with English teachers, build reasoning and analyze the answers.Dzhalolova Svetlana Anatolievna, English teacher of the highest qualification category. Winner of the competitive selection for the grant of Moscow in the field of education in 2010. Senior expert of the GIA Unified State Examination in English. Winner of the All-Russian Olympiad of English teachers "Profi-Kray" 2015. Diploma of the Ministry of Education of the Russian Federation in 2014, Diploma of the winner of the contest for the best teachers of the Russian Federation in 2007, Diploma of the winner of the competition for the Grant of Moscow in 2010. Work experience - 23 years.
Nedashkovskaya Natalya Mikhailovna, English teacher of the highest qualification category. Winner of PNPO in 2007. Winner of the competitive selection for the Moscow Grant in the field of education in 2010. GIA OGE expert in English. Conducted a pedagogical examination of educational publications at the Russian Academy of Education 2015-2016. Diploma of the Ministry of Education of the Russian Federation in 2013, Diploma of the winner of the contest for the best teachers of the Russian Federation in 2007, Diploma of the winner of the competition for the Moscow Grant in 2010. Work experience - 35 years. 
Podvigina Marina Mikhailovna, English teacher of the highest qualification category. Winner of PNPO 2008. Winner of the competitive selection for the Grant of Moscow in the field of education in 2010. Senior expert of the GIA Unified State Examination in English. Conducted a pedagogical examination of educational publications at the Russian Academy of Education 2015-2016. Diploma of the Ministry of Education of the Russian Federation in 2015, Diploma of the winner of the contest for the best teachers of the Russian Federation in 2008, Diploma of the winner of the competition for the Grant of Moscow in 2010. Work experience - 23 years.
Trofimova Elena Anatolievna, English teacher of the highest qualification category. Senior expert of the GIA Unified State Examination in English. Honorary diploma of the Ministry of Education of the Russian Federation in 2013. Work experience - 15 years.
Exercise 1
Methodological hint
This task tests knowledge of English grammar. Let's pay attention to those parts of speech that need to be transformed. It is important that when changing the form of a word, the part of speech does not change! To the right of the text, any of the six parts of speech can be given. These are a noun, an adverb, a cardinal number, a personal pronoun and a verb. When performing this task, it is necessary to take into account what grammatical forms these parts of speech have. The singular noun takes the form of the plural (here, in addition to the general rule for the formation of the plural of nouns, it is necessary to recall all the exceptions and features of the spelling of the forms of the plural of nouns). A cardinal number becomes an ordinal number (pay attention to the difficult cases of the formation and writing of some numbers). The adjective and adverb have a comparative or superlative degree (there are also some cases to remember here). A personal pronoun can become a possessive (short or long form), object or reflexive. As for the verb, remember that it can stand in personal and impersonal forms (for example, in the form of Present Participle or Past Participle). If the verb is to be used in a personal form, then it is necessary to determine in which voice the verb should be (active or passive) and in what grammatical tense. For the correct definition of grammatical time, it is necessary, firstly, to determine in which existential (life) time the sentence or situation is presented. To do this, we look at the verbs around the gap and other indicators of time to determine whether the narrative refers to the present, past or future. Having determined the time, we must determine the temporary form. To do this, we are looking for hint words or indicators of grammatical tenses in the sentence (for example, every day, usually - indicators of Present Simple, since, for, yet - indicators of Present Perfect. Also, the time line often helps, which clearly shows what sequence exists between actions and events.
In addition, the verb can be part of a conditional sentence (there are four types of conditional sentences, starting with zero, in each of which the verbs are in certain forms) or a sentence starting with I wish or If only.
Do not forget to also pay attention to those words that are immediately before the gap - do not forget that there are a number of verbs, adjectives, phrases and constructions, after which it is necessary to use an infinitive with or without a particle to or a gerund (for example, fancy going, want to go, make symbol do smith, There"s" no point in doing smith...).
Let's get started with the test.
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19. Around 1350, art, learning, and science started to flourish in some parts of Europe. To many people, this was the beginning of a new golden age. This period was not the _________ golden age in Europe. |
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20. Greece _______ one 1,900 years before. About 500 years later, Roman civilization had been at its height. |
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21. Because this new golden age was something like _________ Greek and Roman periods, it is called the Renaissance. The word "renaissance" means "rebirth." Many Greek and Roman values were reborn in the Renaissance. |
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22. Windsor is a small town not far from London which is about a thousand years old. It became the setting for The Merry ___________ of Windsor, |
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24. What the town is famous for today is Windsor Castle, the Royal residence. From a plane Windsor Castle with its big round tower looks like a child's dream of a sand castle. Sadly, in 1992 fire ___________ a large part of the castle buildings. |
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25. Since then the Castle ________________. It required a lot of money. To pay for it, it was decided to open Buckingham Palace to the public at selected times of the year and to charge visitors a fee. |
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reasoning
We read the presented texts (this may be one text) in order to have a general idea of what is at stake. Then we fill in the blanks.
Number 19. The cardinal number one is written, therefore, the only possible form is the ordinal number first. Number 20. The verb is presented. Conducting a blitz analysis: liability or asset? - asset. This is a personal form, since the subject of Greece does not have a predicate, so the full form of the verb is needed. This is not a conditional sentence, since there are no corresponding words if, unless, and others. We define existential time - the past (Past), since there are words 1900 years before, had been. Now we determine the grammatical tense (tense) - look at the time in the previous sentence - was not, in the sentence with a gap there is a phrase 1900 years before - draw a time line, set the point was not in the past, determine where - to the left or right the point 1900 will be years before. She is on the right. Actions go one after another in the past, which means the verb will be in Past Perfect tense, showing that the action has already happened and ended before the verb was not. The next sentence confirms the correctness of our choice - had been at its height, also before the verb was not. Therefore, we put the verb have in the form (Past Perfect - had had).
Number 21. The adjective early is here (it is an adjective, since it is a definition for the words Greek and Roman periods), and this adjective must be put in a comparative degree, since the period is compared only with the Greek and Roman periods, and not with all periods of history.
Number 22. The noun wife is written in the singular. The only possible transformation is the plural form wives(A noun ending in -f, plural -fe changes f to ves).
Number 23. The personal pronoun he is given. This pronoun is not a subject in the text, but is an addition, respectively, it is necessary to use the object pronoun him.
Number 24. Given a verb. We use a familiar algorithm for completing the task: an asset or a liability? - Active, because the subject fire (fire) can destroy the building. This is not a conditional. The subject does not have a predicate, which means that it is a verb in a personal form. The existential time is past, the year is indicated here - 1992. And this year also indicates that this is Past Simple (an action performed at a certain point in time in the past). correct form destroyed.
Number 25. The verb repair is given. Active or passive? - Passive, the castle cannot fix anyone, you can repair it. Not a conditional, a personal form, because it is a predicate. In the previous and following sentences, the verbs are in the past tense, but in the omitted sentence itself there is since then, which is an indicator of perfect tenses. To decide whether to use -Present Perfect or Past Perfect - we draw a time line. We put an end to the past destroyed. Will the verb repair in the correct form be on the right or left of the verb destroyed? - On right. So we put the verb in Present Perfect - has been repaired.
Thus, the answers to tasks from 19 to 25 look like this: 19 - first, 20 - had had, 21 - earlier, 22 - wives, 23 - him, 24 - destroyed, 25 - has been repaired.
Task 2. Read the text below. From the words printed in capital letters at the end of the lines indicated by numbers 26-31, form cognates so that they correspond grammatically and lexically to the content of the text. Fill in the gaps with the given words. Each gap corresponds to a separate task from group 26–31.
Methodological hint
This part tests word formation skills. The task in the specification is formulated as “tasks for filling in a gap in a connected text by forming a related word from the proposed key word” using suffixes and prefixes. The key to success in completing this task is two factors - the correct definition of the part of speech that must be inserted instead of the gap, and the knowledge of word-forming suffixes and prefixes. We read the text, paying attention to the words before and after the gaps. We determine the missing part of speech, as well as whether the missing word has a negative or affirmative connotation.
Australia
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26. In 1770, James Cook landed on the east coast of Australia and claimed the land for Great Britain. For many years after that only a few people came to Australia ___________. It was too far from Europe to attract many outsiders. |
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27. The first settlers were ______________. They were not asked if they wanted to come. |
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28. Moving to Australia was part of their ___________________. In time they were joined by more willing settlers who wanted to find adventure and a better life. |
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29. Like the settlement of the United States, much of Australia's history deals with the push west. There was, however, one big In their drive westward, the Australians found no rich river valleys or fertile plains. Instead, they found only dry empty land they called the outback. |
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30. The outback was _________________ any place the early settlers had ever seen. For months there would be no rain at all. Then suddenly the skies would open up. Within hours, rivers overflowed their banks. Yet only a few days later the land would be as dry as ever. |
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31. Few settlers were willing to risk their lives in such a harsh land. Then gold was ___________ there in 1852. Thousands flocked to the outback of Australia to make their fortunes. |
reasoning
Number 26. Only a few people came to Australia how? is an adverb that defines the verb came. The following sentence explains why it happened this way.
Number 27. The first settlers were ........... In this situation, the verb were can be followed by either an adjective specifying what they were, or a noun indicating who these settlers were (if this choice is correct, then the noun will be to be plural based on the plural settlers and were. The following sentence does not exclude either of these options, so we leave both of these options for now.
Number 28. Moving to Australia was part of their....... We see the missing part of the phrase with the preposition of, in which there must be nouns before and after the preposition, and before the gap there is a short possessive pronoun their, which determines the noun. Therefore, the missing part of speech is a noun.
Number 29. There was, however, one big...... After the There was construction there should be a noun, which is confirmed by the presence of a numeral and an adjective before the omission, defining the same part of speech. Therefore, the missing word is a singular noun (the number indicator is the word one).
Number 30. The outback was .............any place the early settlers had ever seen. Was can be followed by either a participle or an adjective or noun. Since the noun is already there (place), therefore, the missing part of speech is an adjective.
Number 31. Then gold was.........there in 1852. A similar situation to number 30. Based on the meaning of the whole sentence, we assume that most likely it will be a past participle, which determines what happened to gold in 1852.
Having noted in the margins of KIM, next to each gap, the parts of speech defined by us, we open the words themselves on the right.
Number 26- adverb, so you need to substitute the suffix -ly, we get the word willingly. We reread the paragraph with the inserted word - the meaning is preserved.
Number 27- the word prison suggests that we need a noun specifying who the first settlers were. The following sentence confirms this. Forming a noun prisoners in plural.
Number 28- we form a collective noun from the word punish punishment, which completes the sentence, making it a logical extension of the idea expressed in the previous two sentences.
Number 29- we form the noun difference from the word differ. Rereading the paragraph, the educated noun fits in perfectly, as the paragraph is about the difference in westernization in the United States and Australia.
Number 30- we are offered to replace the word like, which in itself is already an adjective. Consequently, the part of speech is already determined by itself, we only need to keep this part of speech and add a negative prefix in order to form a new, suitable in meaning, word - unlike.
Number 31- we have been given the word covered, which is already a participle. Therefore, as in the previous case, we need a negative prefix. In the case of covered, there can be two of them: dis- and un- . Uncovered - slightly opened, removed the cover .... Discovered - discovered, discovered something new. In this context, the second meaning is appropriate. Therefore, the correct word is discovered.
Answers: 26 - willingly, 27 - prisoners, 28 - punishment, 29 - difference, 30 - unlike, 31 - discovered.
3. Task numbered 32-38, for which the maximum number of points is given -7 (1 point for each correct answer), worded as follows:
Methodological hint
In the third task (32-38) of the part of the section, a coherent text is offered with gaps and 4 options for filling them (1-4), of which only one is correct. This task tests the ability to use vocabulary in a communicative context, taking into account the specifics of:
- forms of one word and words similar in spelling and sound;
- meanings of one word and its synonyms, antonyms, homonyms;
- the norms of lexical compatibility adopted in the English language, etc.
To effectively complete this task, you should:
1. View the entire text with gaps, try to understand its content
2. Read the entire fragment carefully, but pay special attention to the sentence with the missing word
3. Try to predict the missing word based on the context surrounding the missing word.
4. Study all the proposed answers, choose the most appropriate one, taking into account the meaning and norms of lexical compatibility of the missing word. Particular attention should be paid to synonyms (they may have different shades of meaning, they may have differences in control and compatibility with other words), as well as consonant words or words with similar spelling (they may have different meanings).
5. Read the sentence with the gap again, make sure that the chosen word is the most correct to fill in the gap. Determine why the rest of the words do not fit.
6. If you cannot consciously choose any of the proposed options, choose the answer intuitively, do not leave the task unanswered.
For example, given a text with gaps:
Growing up with Joey
I enjoy thinking of my childhood. But when I think of my home town where I grew up, all that I 32 __________ to remember is dust. I remember the brown, crumbly dust of late summer that gets into the eyes and makes them water. It is the kind of dust that gets into the throat and between the 33 _________ of bare brown feet. I don "t know why I should remember only the dust. There must have been green lawns and paved streets under leafy shady trees somewhere in town. One day returns to me clearly for some reason. I was resting under the great oak tree in the yard. I was deep in thought which I have now forgotten except that it involved some secret. Joey and a bunch of kids were bored now with the old tire hanging from an oak limb. It had 34 _______ them busy for a while. "Hey, Lizabeth," Joey yelled. He never talked when he could yell. "He, Lizabeth, let's go somewhere." I came back from the thoughts of my private world. "Where at, Joey?" The truth was that we were becoming tired 35 ____ the empty summer days. “Let's go over to Miss Lottie's,” said Joey. The idea caught on at once. Annoying Miss Lottie was always fun. I was still child 3 6 ___________ to run along with the group. We went over old fences and through bushes that tore our 3 7 ________ ripped clothes, back to where Miss Lottie lived. I think now that we must have looked partly funny and partly sad. There were six of us, all different ages, dressed in only one thing 38 _______. The girls wore faded dresses that were too long or too short. The boys wore patched pants. A little cloud of dust followed our thin legs and bare feet as we tramped over the dusty ground.
32. 1) seem, 2) think, 3) look, 4) believe
Answer: 1, because the other options don't make sense.
33. 1) fingers, 2) thumbs, 3) toes, 4) pinkies
Answer: 3 , since we are talking about a foot, toes are toes.
34. 1) got, 2) preserved, 3) held, 4) kept
Answer:4 , word compatibility - keep busy.
35. 1) from, 2) for, 3) of, 4) by
Answer:3 , the verb to be tired is used in tandem with the preposition of
36. 1) yet, 2) enough, 3) so far, 4) after all
Answer:2 , option 1 is used in questions or negative sentences, option 4 usually takes place at the end of a sentence, option 3 is combined with perfect tenses.
37. 1) before, 2) already, 3) earlier, 4) sooner
Answer:2 , since already is used with what happened earlier and has a meaning at the moment of speech.
38. 1) everyone, 2) anyone, 3) all, 4) each
Answer: 4, according to the meaning of the sentence, the meaning of “each” is suitable - each.
Walking is not enough to keep fit
Walking may not be enough on its own to produce significant health benefits, research suggests. A team from Canada’s University of Alberta compared a 10,000-step exercise program with a more traditional fitness regime of moderate intensity. Researchers found improvements 1 _______________________ were significantly higher in the second group. They told an American College of Sports Medicine meeting that gentle exercise was 2 _______________________ . In total 128 people took 3 _______________________ . The researchers assessed influence on fitness by measuring blood pressure and lung capacity. They found out the 10,000-step program did help to get people motivated – and was an excellent way to start 4 _______________________ . But to increase the effectiveness, some intensity must be added to their exercise. “Across your day, while you are achieving those 10,000 steps, take 200 to 400 of them at a faster pace. You"ve got to do more than light exercise and include regular moderate activity, and don"t be shy to have an occasional period of time at an energetic level.” The researchers were concerned there was too much focus 5 _______________________ , rather than on its intensity.
Professor Stuart Biddle, an expert in exercise science at the University of Loughborough, said it was possible that the current guidelines on how much exercise to take were set too low. “However, you have got to find 6 _______________________ . The harder you make it, the fewer people will actually do it.” Professor Biddle said there was no doubt that energetic exercise was the way to get fit, but volume rather than intensity might be more useful in tackling issues such as obesity.
A. part in the project
b. taking exercise
C. gave marked health benefits
D. fitness levels
E. on simply getting people to take exercise
F. not enough to fit
G. a compromise between physiology and psychology
A Gifted Cook
If there is a gene for cuisine, Gabe, my 11-year-old son, could splice it to perfection. Somewhere between Greenwich Village, where he was born, and the San Francisco Bay area, where he has grown up, the little kid with the stubborn disposition and freckles on his nose has forsaken Boy Scouts and baseball in favor of wielding a kitchen knife.
I suppose he is a member of the Emeril generation. Gabe has spent his formative years shopping at the Berkeley Bowl, where over half a dozen varieties of Thanksgiving yams, in lesser mortals, can instill emotional paralysis. He is blessed with a critical eye. “I think Emeril is really cheesy,” he observed the other night while watching a puff pastry segment. “He makes the stupidest jokes. But he cooks really well.”
With its manifold indigenous cultures, Oaxaca seemed the perfect place to push boundaries. Like the mole sauces for which it is justly famous, the region itself is a subtle blend of ingredients – from dusty Zapotec villages where Spanish is a second language to the zocalo in colonial Oaxaca, a sophisticated town square brimming with street life and vendors selling twisty , one-story-tall balloons.
Appealing to Gabe's inner Iron Chef seemed like an indirect way to introduce him to a place where the artful approach to life presides. There was also a selfish motive: Gabe is my soul mate, a fellow food wanderer who is not above embracing insanity to follow his appetite wherever it leads.
Months ahead of time, we enrolled via the Internet in the daylong Wednesday cooking class at Seasons of My Heart, the chef and cookbook author Susana Trilling’s cooking school in the Elta Valley, about a 45-minute drive north to town. In her cookbook and PBS series of the same name, Ms. Trilling, an American whose maternal grandparents were Mexican, calls Oaxaca “the land of no waste” where cooking techniques in some ancient villages have endured for a thousand years.
I suspected that the very notion of what constitutes food in Oaxaca would test Gabe's mettle. At the suggestion of Jacob, his older brother, we spent our second night in Mexico at a Oaxaca Guerrero baseball game, where instead of peanuts and Cracker Jack, vendors hawked huge trays piled high with chapulines, fried grasshoppers cooked in chili and lime, a local delicacy. Gabe was bug-eyed as he watched the man next to him snack on exoskeletal munchies in a paper bowl. “It's probably less gross than a hot dog,” he admitted. “But on the rim of the bowl I saw a bunch of legs and served body parts. That's revolting!"
Our cooking day began at the Wednesday market in Etla, shopping for ingredients and sampling as we went. On the way in the van, Gabe had made friends with Cindy and Fred Beams, fellow classmates from Boston, sharing opinions about Caesar salad and bemoaning his brother’s preference for plain pizza instead of Hawaiian. Cindy told Gabe about a delicious sauce she’d just had on her omelet at her B & B. “It was the best sauce – to die for,” she said. “Then I found out the provenance. Roasted worms.”
The Oaxacan taste for insects, we’d learn – including the worm salt spied at the supermarket and the “basket of fried locusts” at a nearby restaurant – was a source of protein dating back to pre-Hispanic times.
When our cooking class was over I saw a flicker of regret in his face, as though he sensed the world’s infinite variety and possibilities in all the dishes he didn’t learn to cook. “Mom”, he said plaintively, surveying the sensual offerings of the table. “Can we do everything when we get home?”
1. Gabe's mother thinks he is
2. Gabe is supposed to represent the Emeril generation because he
A) is fond of criticizing others.
B) feels happy being alone.
C) is interested in cooking.
D) is good at making jokes.
3. The narrator wanted to take Gabe to Oaxaca because
A) he could speak Spanish.
B) there are a lot of entertainments for children there.
C) he knew a lot about local cultures.
D) he was the best to keep her company.
4. Gabe was struck when he
A) was told that local cooking techniques were a thousand years old.
B) saw the man next to him eat insects.
C) did not find any dish to satisfy his appetite.
D) understood that a hot dog was less gross than a local delicacy.
5. The Oaxacan people eat insects because this kind of food
A) tastes pleasant.
B) is easy to cook.
C) contains an essential nutritional element.
D) helps to cure many diseases.
6. At the end of the class Gabe felt regret because
A) there were a lot of dishes he could not make on his own.
B) the dishes he made were not tasty.
C) he did not want to go back home.
D) he had not managed to master all the dishes he liked.
7. In paragraph 3 “brimming with” means
B) being filled with.
C) astonishing with.
D) beckoning with.
BUT. Personal style in a uniform
B. Old but dear
C. Get a holiday spirit
D. Dance competition
E. A hobby that carries away
F. Meaning without words
G. The number is not guilty
H. Yes to school uniform
1. Dance is in my heart, in my blood and in my mind. I dance daily. The seldom-used dining room of my house is now an often-used ballroom. The CD-changer has five discs at the ready: waltz, rock-and-roll, swing, salsa, and tango. Tango is a complex and difficult dance. I take three dancing lessons a week, and I am off to Buenos Aires for three months to feel the culture of tango.
2. Clothes play an important role in my life. My passion for fashion began when I was in elementary school. I attended a private school with a uniformed dress code. At first I felt bad that I could not wear what I wanted, but soon I learned to display my creativity and style through shoes and accessories. They can make each of us each of us unique, in a uniform or not.
3. I believe that music has a bigger place in our society than it is given credit for. The single word ‘music’ covers so many styles. Rock bands and classical musicians make listeners get the meaning from the music. Music tells stories about life and death, expresses feelings of love, sadness, anger, guilt, and pain without using words.
4. Even as an eighteen year old young adult, I still feel the magic of Christmas. I believe in a real Christmas tree. My family has had a real Christmas tree every year of my life. When you get home and smell the sweet pine needles, something magical goes into your soul, raises your spirits. Every year we buy a real tree to fully embrace the spirit of Christmas.
5. People often try to get rid of the number thirty. Many hotels and office buildings across the world do not have a 13th floor! I believe that the number thirty is not an unlucky number. I was born on January, 13 and do not myself unlucky in any way consider at all! I believe that this number should have all the rights and respect we give the rest of the numbers.
6. Many kids that go to public schools don't wear a uniform. They like to show off the new expensive clothes and often have trouble picking out outfits for school in the morning. They are more worried about whether their shirt matches the belt, rather than if the homework is completed. I believe that this is a fault of our school system and only causes problems.
7. They say that the music of your youth is the soundtrack of your life. I am 50; I enjoy new artists and new music, but I still find words of wisdom in singles of sixties and seventies, still believe that "you can"t always get what you want, but sometimes, you get what you need," that "all you need is love." I like to listen to the songs I grew up with.
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Searching for a New Program
A healthy lifestyle can vastly improve your well-being. This is a lifestyle designed for those who wish to feel more certain about their health and more in control of what the present and future will bring them in that important 1 ______ of existence. None of us wants to be sick. None of us enjoys the idea that we may become a medical statistic. This is a simple, easy-to-follow health-style that can enable you to get cards very much in your 2 ______. The doctors were fortunate enough to come into 3 ______ with a field of study that brought them to healing and well-being that they so desperately needed. They personally have 4 ______ thousands of people improve their health using only a small part of information. Many more people begin to improve their health now. Embracing the most current information from many health-related fields, the program of healthy lifestyle gives you an understanding of the impact of exercise, breathing, sunshine, sleep and much more on your health. In order for this program to work for you, you have to be willing to apply at least some part of it. Some change will be 5 ______. And as you make those first modest changes, you will get positive results that encourage you to do more. Changing is fun. And if you realize that your new healthy lifestyle 6 ______ the making of new habits, not the 7 ______ of old ones, you will feel very positive about what the future holds for you.
1. A) sector B) region C) area D) territory
2. A) benefit B) advantage C) privilege D) favor
3. A) touch B) contact C) view D) connection
4. A) confessed B) witnessed C) determined D) recognized
5. A) ordered B) commanded C) forced D) required
6. A) contains B) consists C) involves D) encloses
7. A) breaking B) damaging C) ruining D) destroying
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| Daniel and Diana Daniel and Diana were good friends. They had majored in economics at Bristol University in the early 1980s. Then Daniel met Rachel, who had arrived a year after them, and fell in love with her at first A22 ______. In Rachel he found everything he was looking A23 ______ in a wife. They married the day he graduated, and after they returned from their honeymoon, David took over the management of his father's farm in Bedfordshire. Three children followed in quick succession, and Diana was proud when she was asked to be godmother to Sophie, the eldest. Daniel and Rachel had been married for twelve years; they A24 ______ ever quarelled. A25 ______ married couples were so happy. A26 ______ Diane was regularly asked to spend the weekend with them in the country, she only accepted one invitation out of three. She would have liked to join them more often, but since her divorce she had no desire to take advantage of their hospitality. Diane felt tired. She A27 ______ her work, but it had been an awful week. Two contracts had fallen through, her son had been dropped from the school soccer team, and her daughter had never stopped A28 ______ her that her father didn't mind her watching television when she ought to be doing her homework. “I will survive.” Diana smiled and thought about Daniel's birthday. She had forgotten to get him a present.
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| You have received a letter from your English-speaking pen-friend Tom who writes:
Write a letter to Tom. – answer his questions – ask 3 questions about his trip to Greece |
Comment on the following statement.
Every city and every town should have a zoo.
MINISTRY OF EDUCATION AND SCIENCE OF THE RUSSIAN FEDERATION
FBGOU HPE "ORENBURG STATE PEDAGOGICAL UNIVERSITY"
INSTITUTE FOR PROFESSIONAL ADVANCEMENT AND PROFESSIONAL RETRAINING OF EDUCATIONAL EMPLOYEES
GRADUATION WORK
Formation of strategies for performing text tasks
in the format of the exam in English
(on the example of the "Reading" section)
Performed:
Sergeeva Anastasia Ivanovna, English teacher, MAOU "Mikhailovskaya secondary school"
Supervisor: Repina Nadezhda Anatolyevna, Associate Professor, Candidate of Pedagogical Sciences
Orenburg, 2015
Explanatory note ................................................................ .................................1-13
A set of exercises .............................................................. .................................14-50
List of used sources .................................................................. ...............51
Appendix................................................. ................................................. 52-57
Explanatory note
The well-known document of the Council of Europe "Common European Framework of Reference for Languages: Learning, Teaching, Assessment" defines competence as the sum of knowledge, skills and personal qualities that enable a person to perform various actions. The Unified State Examination (USE) in English allows you to set the level of mastering the federal state standard of secondary (complete) general education in the field of foreign language communicative competence by participants. It is assumed that students of general education schools should reach level B1 of foreign language communicative competence (common European terminology), and students of schools with in-depth study of a foreign language, gymnasiums and lyceums - level B2.
Relevance of the topic
The prospect of the transition of the Unified State Examination in English into the category of mandatory;
Reading is an integral part of the exam. In this regard, reading occupies a significant place in modern educational and methodological complexes in English at all stages of education. The "Reading" section is a voluminous type of activity in the USE, which assesses the ability to read. Reading is a difficult kind of speech activity.
Problem in that the analysis of the results of preparation for the exam shows that 50% of students find it difficult to complete the "Reading" section, in particular search. Therefore, it is necessary to teach students to work with texts at a higher level. All of the above determined the topic of the work: "Formation of strategies for completing text tasks in the USE format in English (on the example of the" Reading ")" section.
Object of study: preparation of secondary school students for the Unified State Exam.
Subject of study: preparation for the delivery of the section of the exam "Reading".
The purpose of this work- theoretically substantiate the types of reading and develop a system of exercises that contribute to the most effective preparation of students for the successful completion of USE tasks in the "Reading" section.
The main tasks of the work are:
to characterize the types of reading as a type of speech activity;
develop a system of exercises for working with texts;
Specification of control measuring materials for the unified state exam in English
1. Appointment of the examination paper
Control measuring materials allow to establish the level of development by graduates of the Federal component of the state educational standard of basic general and secondary (complete) general education.
The results of the unified state exam in a foreign language are recognized by educational institutions that implement educational programs of secondary (complete) general education as the results of state (final) certification, and by educational institutions of secondary vocational education and educational institutions of higher professional education - as the results of entrance examinations in a foreign language. language.
2. Documents defining the content of the examination paper
1. Federal component of state standards for basic general and secondary (complete) general education, basic and profile level (order of the Ministry of Education of Russia dated 05.03.2004 No. 1089).
2. Exemplary programs in foreign languages // New state standards for a foreign language. Grades 2-11 / Education in documents and comments. M.: AST: Astrel, 2004.
3. Programs of educational institutions. English for grades 10-11 of schools with in-depth study of foreign languages. M.: Education, 2003.
4. Programs for educational institutions. German language for comprehensive schools with in-depth study of the German language. M.: Education: MART, 2004.
5. Programs of educational institutions. French for grades 1-11 of schools with in-depth study of foreign languages. M.: Education, 2001.
6. Programs of educational institutions. Spanish for grades 5-11 of schools with in-depth study of foreign languages. M.: Education, 2005.
When developing CIM, the following are also taken into account:
7. Common European Framework of Reference for a Foreign Language: Learning, Teaching, Assessment. MSLU, 2003.
3. Approaches to the selection of content, the development of the structure of the KIM USE
The purpose of the unified state exam in a foreign language is to determine the level of foreign language communicative competence of the examinee. The main attention is paid to speech competence, i.e. communication skills in different types of speech activity: listening, reading, writing, as well as language competence, i.e. language knowledge and skills. Sociocultural knowledge and skills are tested indirectly in the "Reading" section.
Consequently, KIM USE in foreign languages contains the sections "Listening", "Reading", "Grammar and Vocabulary" and "Writing". At the same time, it should be borne in mind that the “Reading” section has skills in the corresponding types of speech activity as objects of control, these skills are provided with the necessary level of development of the language competence of the examinees. Successful completion of tasks for the control of receptive types of speech activity is ensured by knowledge of lexical units, morphological forms and syntactic constructions and skills of their recognition/recognition.
4. The structure of KIM USE
When preparing for the exam in English in the "Reading" section, students should be familiarized with the format of this part of the examination paper in advance. The recommended time to complete this section is 30 minutes. The maximum score is 20 points. The Reading section consists of three tasks. Each task tests one or another type of reading: understanding the main content of the text, understanding the structural and semantic connections of the text, detailed understanding of the text.
The task of the basic level (10) is a task to control the skills of viewing reading, aimed at understanding the main content of the material read. The maximum score is -7. The task of an advanced level (11) is a task to control the understanding of the structural and semantic connections of the text. The maximum score is -6. High-level tasks (12-18) are aimed at the control of learning reading, which requires detailed reading comprehension. The maximum score is -7.
Codifier
elements of content and requirements for the level of training of graduates
educational organizations to conduct a unified state
ENGLISH LANGUAGE exam
The codifier of content elements and requirements for the level of preparation of graduates of educational organizations for the unified state exam in English (hereinafter referred to as the codifier) is one of the documents that determine the structure and content of the KIM USE. It is compiled on the basis of the Federal component of state standards for basic general and secondary (complete) general education in a foreign language (basic and profile levels) (Order of the Ministry of Education of Russia dated March 5, 2004 No. 1089).
The codifier does not include elements of content that are italicized in the section "Mandatory minimum content of basic educational programs" of the standard: this content is subject to study, but is not included in the section "Requirements for the level of training of graduates" of the standard, i.e. is not subject to control.
1. List of content elements checked on a single
state exam in English
| Understanding the main content of messages, simple |
|
| Complete and accurate understanding of pragmatic information texts, popular science publications, excerpts from works of fiction |
|
| Selective understanding of the necessary/interesting information from the text of the article, prospectus |
|
| Understanding the structural and semantic links of the text |
2. List of requirements for the level of training of graduates, the achievement of which is checked at the unified state exam in English
| Requirement code | Knowledge, skills and abilities tested at the exam |
| (journalistic, artistic, popular science, pragmatic) using various strategies/types of reading in accordance with the communicative |
|
| Use introductory reading for comprehension publications of a scientific and educational nature, excerpts from works of fiction |
|
| extracting the necessary/requested information from text of the article, prospectus |
|
| use learning reading to fully understand information of pragmatic texts, publications of scientific cognitive character, excerpts from works fiction |
|
| Separate essential information from non-essential information reveal the most significant facts |
|
| Define your attitude to what you read |
|
| Determine temporal and causal the relationship of events, predict the development / result the stated facts/events, to summarize the described facts/phenomena |
|
| information; understand the meaning of the text and its problems, using text analysis elements |
Reading Preparation Strategies
To successfully pass the exam, it is necessary to work out strategies for completing all three types of tasks. This will help you avoid wasting time on the exam and help you focus on the important points of each assignment. When preparing, it is recommended to complete the task based on step-by-step instructions. I suggest that students use these recommendations for each type of task when doing work.
In the first task (10) you need to establish a correspondence between the title, topic or short statement and a small text. The task offers seven short texts marked with numbers 1-7 and eight headings marked letters A-H. One title is redundant. For each correctly established correspondence, 1 point is given, a maximum of 7 points. The ability to understand the main idea (content) of the statement, to separate the main from the secondary, to ignore redundant information and unfamiliar words that do not interfere with the understanding of the main content are tested.
Before reading texts follows:
what unites them (topic, problem, situation, keyword, etc.)
how they differ from each other: problem, attitude to the problem, etc.
In the process of studying headings, underline key words in them, make other notes that help to understand their meaning and differences.
Looking headings, try to anticipate the main content of the text, pick up the words / phrases that are necessary for disclosure of the topic/problem/situation.
During the second reading sequentially look through each of the proposed texts, ignoring unfamiliar words and expressions, without delving into a detailed understanding.
After a cursory review of each text, select one or more headings proposed in the task for it.
As you read each text, mark all possible answers next to the text.
Make the necessary corrections as you read; some of the previous answers will be eliminated by elimination
If you have any difficulty in determining the correspondence of the text to the title (topic, brief statement), read the text and try to formulate its main idea on your own, then choose the closest in content from the remaining answer options and mark it.
During the second reading
Pay special attention to texts where several possible matches were initially selected.
Justify to yourself the choice of one or another correspondence based on the text.
Check if other selected matches are correct.
After reading
Define an extra title (topic, short statement)
In the second task (11) The task is given a text with six gaps marked with letters (A-F) and seven sentence fragments to fill in the gaps marked with numbers (1-7). One part of the sentence is redundant. It is necessary to establish a correspondence between the part of the text and the missing fragment of the sentence. 1 point is given for each correct match. Maximum - 6 points.
During the first reading
Familiarize yourself with the assignment format and the requirements for completing the forms for this assignment in advance.
Skim through the entire text (without highlighted fragments), try to determine its topic and main content.
During the second reading:
Read the text sequentially, paying special attention to the last word or expression. before every pass; If this word or expression requires a certain agreement or control (the use of a gerund, infinitive, preposition, conjunction, etc.), one must look for the corresponding beginning in the selected fragment.
If the same grammatical structure is used at the beginning of several selected fragments, take into account the semantic content of the sentence with a gap. as well as previous and subsequent proposals.
In the course of reading, mark all possible correspondences, indicating the necessary letters next to the gap number or the necessary numbers next to the letters denoting the selected fragments,
Make the necessary corrections as you read; after each filled gap, unclear answer options will be determined more precisely, eliminated by the elimination method.
Pay special attention to gaps where several possible matches were originally selected. Justify for yourself the choice of one or another correspondence, taking into account the grammatical and lexical norms of compatibility adopted in the English language and / or based on the content of the text.
Check the validity of other selected matches.
After reading
Record the final answer in the table after the task.
Define an extra fragment.
Recheck the accuracy of all responses.
In the third task (12-18) part of the reading section offers seven test items (12-18). For each task, four answer options are offered, indicated by numbers (1-4), of which only one is correct. As a rule, this is either the beginning of a sentence, to which four possible endings are offered, or a question, to which four possible answers are given. For each task (12-18) you must choose one correct answer from the four proposed. 1 point is given for each correctly chosen answer; maximum - 7 points.
Before reading the text
Familiarize yourself in advance with the format of the assignment and with the requirements for filling out the answer forms for this assignment.
Read only the questions or the beginning of sentences without the suggested answers to determine the approximate content of the text, as well as the nature requested informations:
During the first reading
Complete the task in sequence. Remember that subsequence test questions is related to the sequence of development of the plot of the text.
Work with each question according to the proposed scheme:
define the essence of the requested information, those. understand what underlies the requested information: a word, a phrase, a sentence, a paragraph, and or the entire text;
to find a place, where the requested information is given in the text;
understand what is offered answer options are different from each other;
discard obviously incorrect options and determine the most likely answer;
prove , that the rest of the options are incorrect or that the text does not contain the information offered in, as well as the differences between explicit and implicit information.
If you cannot consciously choose any of the proposed options, do not understand the essence of the question, still do not leave the task unanswered. Choose your answer intuitively.
After reading
Make sure you choose the correct answer for each test item.
Record the results of the assignment on a draft so that they can be easily transferred to the answer sheet.
When reading tasks are performed regularly, taking into account these strategies, these algorithms for completing tasks can become the guide to action that will allow you to effectively complete the task.
IIA set of exercises.
Training exercises
Understanding the main content of the text
1. Places to stay in
2. Arts and culture
3. New country image
5. Different landscapes
6.Transport system
7. National languages
A. Belgium has always had a lot more than the faceless administrative buildings that you can see in the outskirts of its capital, Brussels. A number of beautiful historic cities and Brussels itself offer impressive architecture, lively nightlife, first-rate restaurants and numerous other attractions for visitors. Today, the old-fashioned idea of ‘boring Belgium’ has been well and truly forgotten, as more and more people discover its very individual charms for themselves.
b. Nature in Belgium is varied. The rivers and hills of the Ardennes in the southeast contrast sharply with the rolling plains which make up much of the northern and western countryside. The most notable features are the great forest near the frontier with Germany and Luxembourg and the wide, sandy beaches of the northern coast.
C. It is easy both to enter and to travel around pocket- sized Belgium which is divided into the Dutchspeaking north and the French-speaking south. Officially the Belgians speak Dutch, French and German. Dutch is slightly more widely spoken than French, and German is spoken the least. The Belgians, living in the north, will often prefer to answer visitors in English rather than French, even if the visitor’s French is good.
D. Belgium has a wide range of hotels from 5-star luxury to small family pensions and inns. In some regions of the country, farm holidays are available. There visitors can (for a small cost) participate in the daily work of the farm. There are plenty of opportunities to rent furnished villas, flats, rooms, or bungalows for a holiday period. These holiday houses and flats are comfortable and well-equipped.
E. The Belgian style of cooking is similar to French, based on meat and seafood. Each region in Belgium has its own special dish. Butter, cream, beer and wine are generously used in cooking. The Belgians are keen on their food, and the country is very well supplied with excellent restaurants to suit all budgets. The perfect evening out here involves a delicious meal, and the restaurants and cafes are busy at all times of the week.
F. As well as being one of the best cities in the world for eating out (both for its high quality and range), Brussels has a very active and varied nightlife. It has 10 theaters which produce plays in both Dutch and French. There are also dozens of cinemas, numerous discos and many night-time cafes in Brussels. Elsewhere, the nightlife choices depend on the size of the town, but there is no shortage of fun to be had in any of the major cities.
G. There is a good system of underground trains, trams and buses in all the major towns and cities. In addition, Belgium’s waterways offer a pleasant way to enjoy the country. Visitors can take a one-hour cruise around the canals of Bruges (sometimes described as the Venice of the North) or an extended cruise along the rivers and canals linking the major cities of Belgium and the Netherlands.
Match headings 1–8 with texts A–G. Record your answers in a table. Use each number only once. There is one extra title in the assignment.
1. Places to stay in
2.Public transport
3.Cultural differences
5. Camping holidays
6. Contact with neighbors
7. Different landscapes
A. Sweden is a land of contrast, from the Danish influence of the southwest to the Laplanders wandering freely with their reindeer in the wild Arctic north. And while Sweden in cities is stylish and modern, the countryside offers many simpler pleasures for those who look for peace and calm. The land and its people have an air of reserved calm, and still the world’s best-selling pop group Abba, which used to attract crowds of hysterical fans, come from Sweden.
B. Historically, Sweden has an interesting story. Its dealings with the outside world began, in fact, during Viking times, when in addition to the well- known surprise attacks of the nearby lands, there was much trading around the Baltic, mostly in furs and weapons. Swedish connections with the other Scandinavian countries, Norway and Denmark, have been strong since the Middle Ages. The monarchies of all three are still closely linked.
C. Sweden's scenery has a gentler charm than that of neighboring Norway's rocky coast. Much of Sweden is forested, and there are thousands of lakes, notably large pools near the capital, Stockholm. The lakeside resort in the center of Sweden is popular with Scandinavians, but most visitors prefer first the Baltic islands. The largest island, Gotland, with its ruined medieval churches, is a particular attraction.
D. Sweden boasts a good range of hotels, covering the full spectrum of prices and standards. Many of them offer discounts in summer and at weekends during the winter. In addition, working farms throughout Sweden offer accommodation, either in the main farmhouse or in a cottage nearby. Forest cabins and chalets are also available throughout the country, generally set in beautiful surroundings, near lakes, in quiet forest glades or on an island in some remote place.
E. Living in a tent or caravan with your family or friends at weekends and on holiday is extremely popular in Sweden and there is a fantastic variety of special places. Most are located on a lakeside or by the sea with free bathing facilities close at hand. There are over 600 campsites in the country. It is often possible to rent boats or bicycles, play mini-golf or relax tennis, ride a horse or in a sauna. It is also possible to camp in areas away from other houses.
F. Swedes like plain meals, simply prepared from the freshest ingredients. As a country with a sea coast and many freshwater lakes, fish dishes are found on all hotel or restaurant menus. Top-class restaurants in Sweden are usually fairly expensive, but even the smallest towns have reasonably priced self-service restaurants and grill bars. Many restaurants all over Sweden offer a special dish of the day at a reduced price that includes main course, salad, soft drink and coffee.
G. Stockholm has a variety of pubs, cafes, clubs, restaurants, cinemas and theaters but in the country evenings tend to be very calm and peaceful. From August to June the Royal Ballet performs in Stockholm. Music and theater productions take place in many cities during the summer in the open air. Outside Stockholm in the 18th-century palace there are performances of 18th-century opera very popular with tourists.
Match headings 1–8 with texts A–G. Record your answers in a table. Use each number only once. IN behind Yes research institutes eat one leash ny behind th lo wok.
3.Public transport
5. Places to stay in
6. Favorite food
7. Hot spots for kids
A. Denmark, a small kingdom in northern Europe, has a lot of interesting places for tourists with children. For example, Legoland, a theme park, has become the largest tourist attraction in Denmark outside its capital Copenhagen. And Copenhagen itself is world famous for its Tivoli Gardens amusement park, which opened in 1843 in the heart of the city. The park offers ballet and circus performances, restaurants, concerts, and fireworks displays.
b. Denmark is the smallest Scandinavian country, consisting of the Jutland peninsula, north of Germany, and over 400 islands of various sizes, some inhabited and linked to the mainland by ferry or bridge. Throughout the country, low hills provide a constant change of attractive views; there are also cool and shady forests of beech trees, large areas of open land covered with rough grass, a beautiful lake district, sand dunes and white cliffs on the coast.
C. More than four-fifths of all Danes live in towns. The main cities represent a combination of medieval buildings, such as castles and cathedrals, and modern office buildings and homes. Denmark’s high standard of living and wide-ranging social services guarantee that the cities have no poor districts. Most people in the cities live in flats. But in the suburbs many also live in single-family houses.
D. Denmark’s fine beaches attract many visitors, and there are hotels and pensions in all major seaside resorts. Besides, excellent inns are to be found all over the country. Some are small and only serve local travelers, but others are adapted to the tourist and have established reputations for both international dishes and local specialities. There are also private rooms to let, usually for one night, and chalets all over Denmark.
E. There is a wide selection of places to go out in the evening, particularly in Copenhagen. Jazz and dance clubs in the capital city are top quality and world-famous performers appear regularly. There are numerous cafes, beer gardens and specialty beer bars. Entertainment available includes opera at the recently opened opera house in Copenhagen, ballet and theater at a number of places in the larger cities, and live music of all kinds.
F. Most Danes eat four meals a day - breakfast, lunch, dinner, and a late-evening supper. Breakfast generally consists of cereal, cheese, or eggs. Dinner, which includes fish or meat, is usually the only hot meal. A traditional Danish dinner consists of roast duckling stuffed with apples, served with red cabbage and boiled potatoes. The other Danish meals consist mostly of sandwiches.
G. Almost all adult Danes can read and write. Danish law requires children to attend nine years of school. Primary school consists of the first seven grades, and secondary school lasts from three to five years. A five-year secondary school student can enter a university. Denmark has three universities. The University of Copenhagen is the oldest and largest. It was founded in 1479 and has about 24,000 students.
These people are interested in doing part-time courses. Read these adverts about part-time courses and choose a suitable course for each person.
Sue's an engineer and she works for an American company. At the moment she's managing a project in London. She loves working abroad and she'd like to work in South America or Asia one day. She hardly ever meets people that aren't connected with her job. She wants to meet new people, use her mind and discuss ideas. She's looking for an interesting evening course where she can do these things.
Jackie loves music and wants to work in music industry when she leaves school. She plays the violin very well and has lessons once a week. Now she wants to learn to play the guitar or the piano. She isn't going out or getting much exercise at the moment because she's studying for her exams. She isn't happy about this because she's usually quite an active person.
Danilo is from Italy but he's living in London at the moment. He's working as a waiter in an Italian restaurant. He'd like to go to university in England and he's trying to find out about courses. He likes traveling and he's interested in talking to people from different countries. In his free time he goes to the cinema a lot and one day he'd like to work in the film industry.
1. Bring out the writer in you!
Learn how to write articles, short stories, novels.
Our professional team of writers can teach you everything you need to know. Don't delay! Fill in the form and send it to us.
2. Current affairs - what is behind those headlines?
Do you know what's happening in the world at the moment? This course gives you all information and a chance to discuss it in small, friendly groups. You can make friends from different countries.
This course is for anyone who loves film. We will look at the work of Hitchcock, Fellini, Tarantino and others.
4. Guitar and violin lessons
I'm a patient, experienced professional musician and I'm looking for students - beginners are welcome!
Lessons at students' homes.
5. Information technology evening courses
No computer skills? No problem! Come to our introductory courses!
These people want to find a coffee shop or a nice place to eat. Decide which cafe would be the most suitable for them. Here are descriptions of five cafes in town. Decide which cafe would be the most suitable for the people above.
1. Ann works for a travel agency in a small seaside resort. Every morning she has a big breakfast, as she only has a one hour lunch break.Sometimes there’s even extra work to do at lunchtime. There are a few cafes around her office, but they all serve traditional British food. She prefers unusual and quite strong flavours.
2. Mrs Black is a retired 75-year-old History teacher. She is proud of her British origin and is looking for a traditional place to spend her empty afternoons in. She doesn't like crowded or noisy coffee shops.
3. Mr Ridle and Mr Radison are two businessmen who always work long hours. They have to deal with sales reps coming from all over Europe. At the end of a long meeting they like having a quick but high-quality meal with them.
4. Keith is a personal trainer in a sports centre. At the moment he's much more interested in travelling. Unfortunately he is allergic to some food. He can't stand meat, but he loves eating lots of other types of dishes, particularly eggs.
a. The hidden place
The most unspoilt place in town. Delicious homemade cakes and proper tea and coffee for anybody who enjoys taking their time. Try next door if you're in a hurry! Pets are welcome. cheap prices.
b. At Eddie's
This is more of all you can eat salad bar! The ideal place where you can enjoy all vegan food including French fries, hash-brown nuggets and omlettes! Parking places available.
c. food paradise
We are a small family owned restaurant and coffee shop located in the city centre. We offer the biggest variety in authentic Mexican food. All dishes are for very reasonable prices.
d. Coffee Shop "Bella Italia"
Forget expensive luxury Italian restaurants. We offer classic Italian cooking at coffee shop prices. Self-service area and five tables always reserved for nearby companies. Closed Sat-Sun.
e. Cafe Antalya
Popular Turkish cafe on the coast. If you are fed up with the usual tomato and cheese sandwich, try our Adana Kebab, a spicy hot, grilled meat specialty. For a quick snack, sweet syrupy pasties and strong black coffee await you! Good prices and outdoor seating available.
These people want to buy a CD. These are descriptions of some CDs. Decide which CD would be the most suitable for the following people.
1. Peter is an English teacher. He has traveled a lot, and he likes to listen to foreign music, especially from India and other Asian countries. He is quite fond of folk music.
2. Karen is a high school student who enjoys listening to the newest pop songs to practice her English. She likes to sing along with the music while she listens. She especially enjoys listening to music sung in English by groups of attractive young men who can dance.
3. Bob is retired. He likes to listen to music from his youth because it reminds him of when he used to play the piano in a band at university. He doesn't like music with a lot of singing because it's difficult to hear the instruments well.
4. Mick is a high school student who plays the violin. He likes listening to well-known orchestras playing classical music and hopes to play in one of them some day.
A. The Singer was 111 For lovers of classical music who don't like opera-style singing, the famous New York City Opera Orchestra has made this unusual CD. Listeners can hear some of the most famous opera melodies of all time with one important difference: there is no singing at all.
B. The Golden Age of Jazz 1960
Here is a great disc for lovers of music from this important year in the history of jazz. There is very little singing on this CD, just lots of fantastic playing by some of the greatest musicians of the time.
C. Get up and dance
This collection of newly recorded updated versions of pop songs from your parents' generation will have you singing and dancing all night! Some of these songs are sure to be hits again for the second time.
D. China and its Music
China is an enormous country with many different languages, traditions and music. Fifteen unusual songs will give you an idea of the variety of traditional music that can be found in this beautiful, interesting country.
E. Music Video Gold
This CD has thirty songs from the most popular music videos of this year. The words to all of the songs are also included for your maximum enjoyment. As a special bonus, you can also hear all of the songs without singing if you'd like to sing and pretend you are your favorite pop star!
Read the newspaper advertisements and choose who can live there:
d) a family with child
A separate flat facing the river, on the second floor, central heating, hot water, a bathroom, a big kitchen, a living room with large windows, a bedroom. All the rooms are furnished. The rent is 100 pounds a month.
2 . ______
The Victoria is a large and comfortable hotel in the center of Oxford. There are double rooms and single ones. All the bedrooms have television, telephone and central heating. There are two restaurants, a coffee shop and a bar. The hotel has a lift and a car park.
A separate room on the fifth floor for a single man, with furniture and a bathroom. There is a desk, a sofa, a TV set and a bookcase. The telephone is in the hall. There is no lift. The room is small but warm and cozy. The rent is only 50 pounds a month.
A two-bedroom apartment facing a park on the tenth floor, a big living room, furnished. There is a small kitchen with modern equipment. A swimming pool and a laundry are in the basement. The rent is 150 pounds a month.
a. Who else can be real friends?
b. Why do friendship end?
c. What is friendship?
d. What should a friend be like?
1. ____ The famous 4th century philosopher Aristotle once said,
‘Without friends nobody would want to live’. Friendship is indeed universal and one of the most important human emotions. Friendship is important for everybody. According to scientists, people who have lots of friends get ill less often, looking younger and are more willing to work. Children who have lots of friends become more generous and do better at school, while old people who have lots of friends age less.
2. _______First of all, a friend must be honest and loyal. Then they
must be able to listen and participate, not only in their friend's joy, but in their suffering, too. Also, they must have the same interests and opinions as their friends. Friends are the important part of your life. And the best friend must keep secret and you can rely on him or her. Usually real friendship becomes stronger with age.
3. _______A friendship can end for many different reasons. one im
portant reason is trust. If you tell a secret to your friend and they don't keep it, you might fall out and the friendship could end. Jealousy and envy are other causes. In fact, a jealous or envious friend is not a real friend!
4. ________ Animals can be great friends. For many people the com
panionship of a dog or a cat is very important. There is even a therapy‘Pet Therapy’, that uses contact with animals to help people with physical and psychological problems.
Read the text and give the title to the parts of the text:
a. the problems of driving
b. the second capital
c. traffic in the city
d. business center
e. cultural center
1. ____Everyone knows something about New York- the Statue
of Liberty, the skyscrapers, the beautiful shops on Fifth Avenue, and many theaters of Broadway. This is America's cultural capital, and her biggest city, with a population of nearly eight million. In the summer it is hot and in winter it can be very cold, but there are hundreds of things to do and see all the year round.
2. ____There are five parts in New York: Brooklyn, the Bronx, Manhattan, Queens and Richmond. Only one of them, the Bronx, is not on an island. Manhattan, the smallest island in New York, is the real center of the city. When people say ‘New York City’ they usually mean Manhattan. Most of the interesting shops, buildings and museums are here, and Manhattan is the scene of New York's busy night life.
3. ____Wall Street in Manhattan is the financial heart of the USA
and the most important banking center in the world. It is a street of skyscrapers. Five million people work here every day.
4. _____Like every big city, New York has its own traffic system.
Traffic jams can be terrible, and it's usually quickest to go by subway. It goes to almost every corner of Manhattan. But be careful at night, it's better not to go by subway. There are more than 30,000 taxis in New York. They are easy to see because they are bright yellow.
5. If you really have to drive in New York, remember that
nearly all the east-west streets and most of the north-south streets are one way only. This can be difficult for the visitor who doesn't know his way. Try to get a map that shows the directions of the traffic, and good luck!
The people are planning to take up a new activity. Decide which class would be the most suitable for them. There are descriptions of six classes.
1. Susan is a waitress and works a lot of hours at different times of the day and evening. She'd like to be able to do something creative in her own time.
2. Peter works with computers and feels he needs to do something that will keep him fit. He isn't sure what to do so he'd like to be able to try an activity before making a final decision.
3. Robert wants to take up an activity that will give him plenty of contact with other people. He is confident and enjoys performing.
4. Hannah has a busy and stressful job and wants to find a way of relaxing that she can also do at home. She wants to look better and feel better.
A. Art Scene
You don't have to be Picasso to learn to draw and paint in a friendly and relaxing atmosphere. Our evening course includes trips to art galleries and visits by local artists.
b. Pen to Paper
To help you become a first-class writer, we offer you a home-study course. We have excellent tutors who will guide you through the course and show you how to make the most of your ability. Write and study when and where you want. It couldn't be easier.
C. Mind and Body
Try yoga to help you deal with life's worries! It can also help improve the way you look and develop concentration. Best of all, once you've learned the basics, it's something you can do anywhere.
D. Salsa for Beginners
Dancing is a great exercise! Find out if it's for you with our free 'Salsa for Beginners'. Spend an hour having fun in a lively class. We’re sure you’ll want to book straight onto one of our courses after that!
E. What's cooking?
Would you like to create fantastic meals and dinner parties for your friends, or do you simply have trouble making an omelette? If the answer is ‘yes’ to either of these questions, why not try one of our Friday evening cooking classes? You'll always have ideas for the weekend!
F. on stage
If you'd like something new and interesting to do, why not join the Talking Theater Group? We work hard but we have a lot of fun too! We put on two shows a year for local people, which are always very popular!
Put the parts of the text into the right order
A. This modern festival started in California in the United States in the 1960s because some black people wanted to celebrate their original history and culture in their new country. Some Africans in the USA, especially those living in white areas, want their children to value their African-American history. Kwanzaa is not a religious festival, but a festival that celebrates several important ideas and principles like unity, cooperation and creativity, for example.
b. As Kwanzaa becomes popular, it is also becoming more commercialized. There are now Kwanzaa cards, books on Kwanzaa, poetry and recipes. Parents are buying more expensive gifts for their children. Now there is also 'Nia Umoja' a kind old man, rather like Father Christmas,
who attracts children to the festival. Kwanzaa is an interesting balance of African and modern American influence.
C. Kwanzaa is a modern festival celebration by African Americans. It comes from traditional African agricultural festivals. In fact, the name ‘Kwanzaa’ comes from the Swahili word for the first fruit. African Americans also use a Swahili greeting, ‘What’s new?’ during their festival of Kwanzaa.
D. The festival lasts for seven days, from December 26. People light candles, give gifts, and talk about one special principle every day, on each day. On each night there is a dance, and on the final night there is a big feast.
Put the parts of the text into the right order.
Meals in Britain
A.‘Tea means two things. It is a drink and a meal! Some people have afternoon tea, with sandwiches, cakes, and, of course, a cup of tea. Cream teas are popular. You have scones (a kind of cake) with cream and jam.
b. A traditional English breakfast is a very big meal - sausages, bacon, eggs, tomatoes, mushrooms... But nowadays many people just have cereal with milk and sugar or toast with marmalade, jam or honey.
Marmalade and jam are not the same. Marmalade is made from oranges and jam is made from other fruit. The traditional breakfast drink is tea, which people have with cold milk. Some people have coffee, often instant coffee, which is made with hot water. Many visitors to Britain find this coffee disgusting.
C. British like food from other countries too, especially Italian, French, Chinese, and Indian. People often get take-away meals. You buy the food at the restaurant and then bring it home to eat. Eating in Britain is quite international.
D. On Sundays many families have a traditional lunch. They have roast meat, either beef, lamb, chicken or pork, with potatoes, vegetables and gravy. Gravy is a sauce made from the meat juices.
E. For many people lunch is a quick meal. In cities there are a lot of sandwich bars, where office workers can choose the kind of bread they want - brown, white or a roll - and then all sorts of salad and meat or fish to go in the sandwich. Pubs often serve good, cheap food, both hot and cold. School children can have a hot meal at school, but many just take a snack from home.
F. The evening meal is the main meal of the day for many people. They usually have it quite early, between 6 and 8 p.m., and often the whole family eats together.
Understanding structural and semantic relationships in the text
Fire Crews Hunt Escaped Hamster
Eight firefighters have been called in to help find an escaped hamster. Two crews used a chocolate-covered camera and a vacuum cleaner A ____ , called Fudgie, at the home of a six-year-old girl in Dunbar, Scotland.
The girl's mother said: 'We came down for breakfast and discovered Fudgie had opened the top lid of her cage and had made her way into the kitchen and we think she has gone IN ____ ."
The fire crews spent five hours trying to recover the pet after it ran down a hole in the kitchen floor. But, the hamster still refused FROM ____ .
In the search for Fudgie, the firefighters took the family cooker and gas pipes apart. They also dropped a mini-camera coated with chocolate under the floorboards. They then hoped to take out the hamster using a vacuum cleaner. Despite all their efforts, they failed to find Fudge.
In the end, the firefighters put another camera down the hole D ____ , connected to the screen of the family home computer, to see if Fudgie appeared. Besides, the girl and her parents regularly dropped food E ____ .
At last, after eight days the hamster returned to her cage safe and sound. She crawled from the hole in the kitchen floor early in the morning. It was the girl's father who first found Fudge F ____ .
The girl said that day it was like Christmas morning for her. Her parents added that they too felt extremely happy when Fudgie had finally returned.
1. through a small hole in the floor
2. through the hole for the hamster
3. and locked the runaway hamster
4. to come out of the hole
5. to look after the pet
6. to try and locate the missing hamster
7. and left it under the floorboards
Read the text and fill in the gaps A-F with the parts of the sentences marked 1-7. One of the parts in the list 1-7 is extra. Enter the numbers indicating the corresponding parts of the sentences in the table.
If you eat very quickly, it may be enough to increase your risk of being overweight, research suggests.
Osaka University scientists looked at the eating habits of 3,000 people. Just about half of them told researchers that they A ______ . Compared with those who did not eat quickly, fast-eating men were 84% more likely to be overweight, and women were 100% more likely to IN ______ .
Japanese scientists said that there were a number of reasons why eating fast FROM ______ . They said it could prevent the work of a signaling system which tells your brain to stop eating because your stomach is full. They said: 'If you eat quickly you basically fill your stomach before the system has a chance to react, so you D _____ .
The researchers also explained that a mechanism that helps make us fat today, developed with evolution and helped people get more food in the periods when they were short of it. The scientists added that the habit of eating fast could be received from one's parents genes or E ______ .
They said that, if possible, children should be taught to F ______ , and allowed to stop when they felt full up at mealtimes. ‘The advice of our grandmothers about chewing everything 20 times might be true - if you take a bit more time eating, it could have a positive influence on your weight.
1. just overfill your stomach
2. could be bad for your weight
3. have a habit of eating quickly
4. linked to obesity
5. eat as slowly as possible
6. put on weight
7. learned at a very early age
Read the text and fill in the gaps A-F with the parts of the sentences marked 1-7. One of the parts in the list 1-7 is extra. Enter the numbers indicating the corresponding parts of the sentences in the table.
Hi-Tech Brings Families Together
Technology is helping families stay in touch like never before, says a report carried out in the US.
Instead of driving people apart, mobile phones and the Internet are A ______ . The research looked at the differences in technology use between families with children and single adults. It found that traditional families have more hi-tech gadgets in their home IN ______ . Several mobile phones were found in 89% of families and 66% had a high-speed Internet connection. The research also found that 58% of families have more FROM ______ .
Many people use their mobile phone to keep in touch and communicate with parents and children. seventy percent of couples D ______ , use it every day to chat or say hello. In addition, it was found that 42% of parents contact their children via their mobile every day.
The growing use of mobile phones, computers and the Internet means that families no longer gather round the TV to spend time together. 25% of those who took part in the report said they now spend less time E ______ . Only 58% of 18-29 year olds said they watched TV every day. Instead the research found that 52% of Internet users who live with their go families online F ______ several times a week and 51% of parents browse the web with their children.
Some analysts have worried that new technologies hurt families, but we see that technology allows for new kinds of connection built around cell phones and the Internet/ said the report.
1. than any other group
2. watching television
3. in the company of someone else
4. than two computers in the home
5. Communicated with their families
6. helping them communicate
7. owning a mobile
Read the text and fill in the gaps A-F with the parts of the sentences marked 1-7. One of the parts in the list 1-7 is extra. Enter the numbers indicating the corresponding parts of the sentences in the table.
The Power of ‘Hello’
I work at a company where there are hundreds of employees. I know most of them and almost all of them know me. It is all based on one simple principle: I believe every single person deserves to be acknowledged, A ______ .
When I was about 10 years old, I was walking down the street with my mother. She stopped to speak to Mr. Lee. I knew I could see Mr. Lee any time around the neighborhood, IN ______ .
After we passed Lee, my mother said something that has stuck with me from that day until now. She said, ‘You let that be the last time you ever walk by somebody and not open up your mouth to speak, because even a dog can wag its tail FROM ______ . That sounds phrase simple, but it has been a guidepost for me and the foundation of who I am. I started to see that when I spoke to someone, they spoke back. And that felt good. It is not just something I believe in - D ______ . I believe that every person deserves to feel someone acknowledges their presence, no matter how unimportant they may be.
At work, I always used to say ‘hello’ to the founder of the company and ask him how our business was doing. But I was also speaking to the people in the cafe, and asked how their children were doing. I remembered after a few years of passing by the founder, I had the courage to ask him for a meeting. We had a great talk.
At a certain point, I asked him E ______ . He said, ‘If you want to, you can get all the way to this seat.’ I have become vice president, but that has not changed the way I approach people. I speak to everyone I see, no matter where I am. I have learned that speaking to people creates a pathway into their world, F ______ .
1. it has become a way of life.
2. when it passes you on the street.
3. when you see him and talk to him.
4. and it lets them come into mine, too.
5. so I did not pay any attention to him.
6. small or simple the greeting is.
7. how far he thought I could go in his company.
Read the text and fill in the gaps A-F with the parts of the sentences marked 1-7. One of the parts in the list 1-7 is extra. Enter the numbers indicating the corresponding parts of the sentences in the table.
friendship and love
A strong friendship takes a significant amount of time to develop. It will not just magically mature overnight. A friendship involves committing oneself to help another person A ______ . I believe that, nothing can replace a true friend, not material objects, or money, and definitely not a boy.
I met this guy a couple summers ago who I ended up spending almost all of my free time with. His parents did not approve of our dating because of our age difference, IN ______ . He had told me the day we met that he had joined the air force and would leave for overseas that coming October. After three months had past, the time came when he had to leave. This left me feeling completely alone.
I turned to my friends for support, but to my surprise, FROM ______ . I had spent so much time with this guy and so little time with them, that they did not feel sorry for me when he left. For so long they had become the only constant in my life, and I had taken them for granted over something D ______ .When my boyfriend came back, our relationship changed. I tried to fix all the aspects in my life that had gone so wrong in the previous six months.
This experience taught me that true friendships will only survive if one puts forth effort to make them last. Keeping friends close will guarantee that E ______ . When a relationship falls apart, a friend will always do everything in their power to make everything less painful. As for me, I try to keep my friends as close as I can. I know they will always support me in whatever I do, and to them, I F ______ .
1. but we did anyway.
2. whenever a need arises.
3. they didn't really care.
4. whenever they need your help.
5. could not guarantee would even last.
6. am eternally grateful "for a second chance.
7. someone will always have a shoulder to cry
Full understanding of the information in the text
Read the text, answer the questions
Why did schoolchildren like the new teacher, Mr. Sampson?
1) They liked his appearance.
2) He often went for a walk with them.
3) He organized competitions for them.
4) They enjoyed listening to his stories.
A School Story
It happened at my private school thirty odd years ago, and I still can’t explain it. I came to that school in September and among the boys who arrived on the same day was one whom I took to. I will call him McLeod. The school was a large one: there must have been from 120 to 130 boys there as a rule, and so a considerable staff of masters was required. One term a new master made his appearance. His name was Sampson. He was a tall, well-built, pale, black-bearded man. I think we liked him. He had traveled a good deal, and had stories which amused us on our school walks, so that there was some competition among us to get a chance to listen to him.
Well, the first odd thing that happened was this. Sampson was doing Latin grammar with us. One of his favorite methods was to make us construct sentences out of our own heads to illustrate the rules he was trying to teach us. Now, on this occasion he ordered us each to make a sentence bringing in the verb memlnij 'I remember.' Well, most of us made up some ordinary sentence such as 'I remember my father, ' but the boy I mentioned - McLeod - was evidently thinking of something more interesting than that. Finally, very quickly he wrote a couple of lines on his paper, and showed it up with the rest. The was phrase “Remember the lake among the four oaks.” Later McLeod told me that it had just come into his head. When Sampson read it he got up and went to the man- tel-piece and stopped quite a long time without saying anything looking really embarrassed. Then he wanted to know why McLeod had put it down, and where his family lived, and if there was such a lake there, and things like that.
There was one other incident of the same kind. We were told to make a conditional sentence, expressing a future consequence. We did it and showed up our bits of paper, and Sampson began looking through them. All at once he got up, made some odd sort of noise in his throat, and rushed out. I noticed that he hadn't taken any of the papers with him, so we went to look at them on his desk. The top paper on the desk was written in red ink - which no one used - and it wasn't in anyone's handwriting who was in the class. I asked everyone myself! Then I thought of counting the bits of paper: there were seventeen of them on the desk, and sixteen boys in the form. I put the extra paper in my bag and kept it. The phrase on it was simple and harmless enough: 'If you don't come to me, I'll come to you.' That same afternoon I took it out of my bag - I know for certain it was the same bit of paper , for I made a fingermark on it - and there was no single piece of writing on it!
The next day Sampson was in school again, much as usual. That night the third and last incident in my story happened. We - McLeod and I - slept in a bedroom the windows of which looked out at the main building of the school. Sampson slept in the main building on the first floor. At an hour which I can't remember exactly, but some time between one and two, I was woken up by somebody shaking me. I saw McLeod in the light of the moon which was looking right into our windows. ‘Come,’ he said, - ‘come, there’s someone getting in through Sampson’s window. About five minutes before I woke you, I found myself looking out of this window here, and there was a man sitting on Sampson’s window-sill, and looking in.’ ‘What sort of man? Is anyone from the senior class going to play a trick on him? Or was it a burglar?!’ McLeod seemed unwilling to answer. 'I don't know,' he said, 'but I can tell you one thing - he was as thin as a rail, and water was running down his hair and clothing and/ he said, looking round and whispering as if he hardly liked to hear himself, 'I'm not at all sure that he was alive.' Naturally I came and looked, and naturally there was no one there.
And next day Sampson was gone: not to be found, and I believe no trace of him has ever come to light since. Neither McLeod nor I ever mentioned what we had seen to anyone. We seemed unable to speak about it. We both felt strange horror which neither could explain.
Read text, answer on the questions
The first time Sally traveled by train was when she
1) had to move to her aunt Alice.
2) had a summer vacation at school.
3) went to Pittsburgh for the first time in her life.
4) visited her aunt Alice together with aunt Winnie.
First Train Trip
I must have been about eight when I made my first train trip. I think I was in second grade at that time. It was midsummer, hot and wet in central Kansas, and time for my aunt Winnie’s annual vacation from the store, where she worked as a clerk six days a week. She invited me to join her on a trip to Pittsburgh, fifty miles away, to see her sister, my aunt Alice. ‘Sally, would you like to go there by train or by car?’ aunt Winnie asked. ‘Oh, please, by train, aunt Winnie, dear! We've been there by car three times already!'
Alice was one of my favorite relatives and I was delighted to be invited to her house. As I was the youngest niece in Mother's big family, the aunties all tended to spoil me and Alice was no exception. She kept a boarding house for college students, a two-storey, brown brick building with comfortable, nicely decorated rooms at the corner of 1200 Kearney Avenue. She was also a world-class cook, which kept her boarding house full of young people. It seemed to me that their life was so exciting and joyful.
Since I'd never ridden a train before, I became more and more excited as the magic day drew near. I kept questioning Mother about train travel, but she just said, ‘Wait. You'll see.' For an eight-year-old, waiting was really difficult, but finally the big day arrived. Mother had helped me pack the night before, and my little suitcase was full with summer sundresses, shorts and blouses, underwear and pajamas. I was reading Billy Whiskers, a fantastic story about a goat that once made a train trip to New York, and I had put that in as well. It was almost midnight when I could go to bed at last.
We arrived at the station early, purchased our tickets and found our car. I was fascinated by the face-to-face seats so some passengers could ride backwards. Why would anyone, I thought, want to see where they'd been? I only wanted to see what lay ahead for me.
Finally, the conductor shouted, ‘All aboard!’ to the people on the platform. They climbed into the cars, the engineer blew the whistle and clanged the bell, and we pulled out of the station.
This train stopped at every town between my home in Solomon and Pittsburgh. It was known as the ‘milk train’ because at one time it had delivered goods as well as passengers to these villages. I looked eagerly at the signs at each station. I'd been through all these towns by car, but this was different. The shaky ride of the coaches, the soft brown plush seats, the smells of the engine drifting back down the track and in through the open windows made this trip far more exotic.
The conductor, with his black uniform and shiny hat, the twinkling signals that told the engineer when to stop and go, thrilled me. To an adult, the trip must have seemed painfully slow, but I enjoyed every minute.
Aunt Winnie had packed a lunch for us to eat along the way as there was no dining car in the train. I was dying to know just what was in that big shopping bag she carried, but she, too, said, ‘Wait. You’ll see.’ Midway, Aunt Winnie pulled down her shopping bag from the luggage rack above our seats. My eyes widened as she opened it and began to take out its contents. I had expected lunch- meat sandwiches, but instead there was a container of fried chicken, two hardboiled eggs, bread and butter wrapped in waxed paper, crisp radishes and slim green onions from Winnie’s garden, as well as rosy sliced tomatoes. She had brought paper plates, paper cups and some of the ‘everyday’ silverware. A large bottle of cold tea was well wrapped in a dishtowel; the ice had melted, but it was still chilly. I carefully balanced my plate on my knees and ate, wiping my lips and fingers with a large paper napkin. This was living!
When we had cleaned our plates, Aunt Winnie looked into the bag one more time. The best treat of all appeared - homemade chocolate cakes! Another cup of cold tea washed these down and then we carefully returned the remains of the food and silverware to the bag, which Aunt Winnie put into the corner by her feet.
‘Almost there,’ said my aunt, looking out of the window at the scenery passing by. And sure enough, as we pulled into the Pittsburgh station we immediately caught sight of aunt Alice, waiting for us, a smile like the sun lighting up her face, arms wide open. We got off the train and she led us past the taxi rank and the bus stop to her car that was parked near the station. And all the way to her home she was asking about my impressions of my first train trip and I could hardly find the words to express all the thrill and excitement that filled me.
Read text, answer on the questions
Why is the collage of photographs more important for Kathy than the other wedding presents?
1) It reminds Kathy of her wedding.
2) Kathy didn't like the other wedding presents.
3) It was the most expensive present.
4) Kathy's sister made it for her.
‘Dear Kathy! Chance made us sisters, hearts made us friends.’ This quote is at the center of a collage of photographs - covering our twenty-something years - that now hangs in my office. My sister, Susie, made it for me as a wedding present. It probably cost very little to make (she is a starving college student, after all), but it means more to me than any of the more ‘traditional’ wedding presents my husband and I received from family and friends last June. Whenever I look at the collage, it reminds me of my sister and what a true friend she is.
Susie and I weren't always close friends. Far from it, in fact. We shared a room for nearly fifteen years when we were younger, and at the time I thought I couldn’t have asked for a worse roommate. She was always around! If we argued and I wanted to go to my room to be alone, she'd follow me right in. If I told her to go away, she'd say right back, 'It's my room, too! And I can be here if I want to.’ I’d consult my mother and she usually agreed with Susie. I suppose being three years younger has its benefits.
When we were kids, she'd 'borrow' my dolls without asking. (And no toy was safe in her hands.) When we got older, Susie quit borrowing my toys and started borrowing my clothes. That was the final straw. I couldn't take it anymore. I begged my parents to let me have a room of my own - preferably one with a lock on the door. The answer was always a resounding ‘no.’ ‘Please?!’ I’d beg. My parents would just shake their heads. They didn't agree with each other on much, but for some reason they had a united front on this issue.
To crown it all, she had this habit of doing everything I did. Choirs, rock bands, sports teams, dance studios: There was no place where I was safe. ‘She looks up to you,’ my mom would say. I didn't care. I just wanted a piece of my life that didn't involve my little sister. When I complained to my mother, she'd just smile and say, 'One day you'll want her around.' Sure.
It's strange how mothers have this habit of being right about everything. When I was sixteen and my sister was thirteen, we went through a series of life-changing events together that would forever change our relationship. First, my parents announced that they were divorcing. My dad packed up and moved to an apartment in New Hampshire - more than a half hour drive away from our cozy house in Massachusetts. He bought me my first car and I often went with Susie to his place when we missed him a lot. During those trips we started discussing our troubles and making plans about how to reunite the family again. But a year later, our father met his future second wife and moved again; this time to Indiana. This meant we could only see him once or twice a year, as opposed to once every few weeks. That was hard.
Yet those few months changed my relationship with my sister forever. We started having more heart-to-heart talks as opposed to silly fights. Over time, she became my most cherished friend. It’s not uncommon for us to have three-hour-long telephone conversations about everything or about nothing-just laughing over memories from childhood or high school.
She's the only person who's been through all of the tough stuff that I've been through, and the only person who truly understands me. Susie and I have shared so much. She's been my roommate, my friend, and my partner in crime. We've done plays together, gone to amusement parks, sang, and taken long road trips together. We've laughed until our sides hurt, and wiped away each others' tears.
Even though distance separates us now, we're closer than ever. Sisters share a special bond. They've seen all of your most embarrassing moments. They know your deepest, darkest secrets. Most importantly, they love you unconditionally. I'm lucky to be able to say that my little sister is my best friend. I only wish everyone could be so fortunate.
Read text, do exercises after text
While he was a teenager, he married a woman some years older than himself. He had three children: the eldest is the daughter and then twins – a son and another girl. In 1587 William went to work in London leaving his family at home. Some people say that the reason was his love of poetry and theatre.
worker, farmer 3. 2 children, 3 children
listening, reading 4. cinema, theater
Write down the words and phrases used in the text
Complete the sentences according to the text
a) on April 22 b) on April 23 c) on August 23
a) a glove-maker b) a clock-maker c) a shoe-maker
3. At school William learned to love…
a) dancing b) reading c) singing
a) New York b) Cardiff c) London
The Globe Theater was built on the bank of the river Clyde.
Write down if the sentences are true to the text or false
Answer the questions on the text
Most of his plays were staged in the Globe Theatre.
He married a woman some years older than himself.
William had quite a good education.
He stopped writing and went to live in Stratford.
Put the sentences in the order they are used in the text
Read the text, do the exercises after the text
Asad story
Three men came to New York for their holidays. Their names were Tom, Pete and Andy. They came to a hotel and asked for a room. The friends got a room on the forty-fifth floor.
They went sightseeing, visited the picture gallery and looked into some shops. In the evening they came back to the hotel from the cinema.
The servant in the hotel told them: “I’m sorry, gentlemen, the lift doesn’t work. If you don't want to go up to your room, you can sleep here, in the hall. I'll bring you the bed linen."
“No, no,” said the men, “we shan’t sleep in the hall. We shall go up to our room.” Then Tom said to his friends:” It’s not easy to go up to the forty-fifth floor. I know what we shall do. I shall tell you a lot of jokes. Andy will sing us songs and Pete will tell us an interesting story.”
The three friends went up to their room. They listened to Tom's jokes, then Andy sang songs. When they came to the thirty-fifth floor, Tom said to Pete: “Now we shall listen to your long and interesting story.”
“Yes”, answered Pete, “but my story is short and very sad. I have no key with me. It is on the table in the hall.”
Reading Comprehension Test №2
I. Choose the phrases which were used in the text
1. three men, four men 3. Theatre, cinema
2. New York, London 4. Funny stories, jokes
II. Choose the sentences which were used in the text
1. A) The friends got a room on the thirty-fifth floor.
B) The friends got a room on the forty-fifth floor.
2 A) They looked into some shops.
B) They looked into some supermarkets.
3. A) We shall go up to our room.
B) We shall sleep in the hall.
4. A) Andy told interesting stories.
B) Andy sang songs.
III. Complete the sentences according to the text
Three men came to…
The friends got a room on the…
Pete has left the key…
IV. Write down if the sentences are true to the text or false
1. Three men came to a restaurant.
2. Three men visited a picture gallery.
3. They came back from the cinema in the afternoon.
4. Pete will sing songs.
V. Answer the questions on the text
1. Where did three men come to?
2. Why did they go up to their room on foot?
3. Who told jokes?
4. What was Peter's story?
Summer time is a time for festival in Britain. Join us as we go to three fabulous festivals.
Notting Hill Carnival
The Notting Hill Carnival takes place in the Notting Hill area of London on the last weekend in August. It is a huge multicultural artsfestival and is the largest street festival in Europe. Groups come from all over the world to take part. There's music, dancing, street theater and decorated floats. Up to 1.5 million people come to the festival and there's something for everyone to see and do.
Glastonbury Festival
It's the world's biggest open air music festival. The festival covers 1,000 acres of farmland in southwest England. It takes place in June and last four days. About 700 acts are played on over 80 stages. There is continual music from 9 o'clock in the morning until 6 o'clock the next morning. Last year 190,000 people attended the festival and paid 200 for a ticket. Hundreds of famous names have performed at Glastonbury. It also supports charities such as Greenpeace, WaterAid and others. The festival is famous for its rain! In 1997,1998 and 2005 it rained, every day, and the festival-goers danced in the mud.
Eisteddford
Eisteddfod, a celebration of Welsh music and poetry, is the biggest cultural event in Wales and it takes place in the first week of August. There are competitions for all the best singers, choirs and poets. The Gorsedd Of The Bards, an association of the best poets, writers, musicians and artists in Wales, selects the winners. The members of the Gorsedd are called druids and they wear long colorful robes. All the events are in Welsh, but there are headphones with English language translations for anyone who doesn't understand Welsh!
1. Where does the Notting Hill Carnival take place?
a. in suburbs of London
b. in one of the parts of London
c. in the center of London
2. Who usually attends this festival?
a. only Londoners
b. british people
c. different people
3. When does Glastonbury host its music event?
a. at the beginning of summer
b. in the middle of summer
c. at the end of summer
4. What does this festival support?
a. some handicrafts
b. environmental projects
c. foreign people
5. What is Eisteddfod?
a. it's only a music festival
b. it's a folk festival
c. it's a poetry competition
6. In what language are the events at Eisteddfod?
Niagara Falls is located between Southern Ontario (Canada) and New York State (USA). The first inhabitants who settled in the Niagara Falls region were the Iroquois. They worked as farmers and trades along the banks of the Niagara River. When the first Europeans set foot in the area, they also settled there. The 19th century brought the most important developments to the area. The Village of Manchester (Niagara Falls) became an important center for manufacturing companies during the early years of the industrial development. Tourists started to arrive in the 1820s and they still visit this after almost two centuries.
The most comfortable way to visit Niagara Falls is a boat trip on the world famous Maid of the Mist. This historical boat tour takes millions of tourists to the Falls from the Canadian to the American side every year. Don't miss two other important attractions: the White Water Walk, an amazing tour through a deep narrow gorge and the Journey Behind the Falls, a self-guided tour which takes you to an observation platform at the base of the Falls in a lift . You can then go on a short journey through some tunnels which lead you behind the Falls.
After a day of exciting adventure, visit Niagara Square with all its shops, cinemas and boutiques. There are lots of restaurants that serve locally grown products and regional cuisine. At night, experience local clubs with live music and entertainment. Don't forget the fireworks over the Falls every Friday and Sunday!
1. This information is to help tourists who want to spend a holiday in Canada.
2. You can see the Falls only on board a boat.
3. The first people who made their home there were Europeans.
4. You can only taste local food.
5. You can have fun at night.
Read the text. Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
Many people traveling to Mexico pass through Mexico City, but most of them never actually visit Mexico’s capital city. If you asked those people why, they would probably say something about the air. Mexico City is very big, and air pollution is always a problem in big cities. But a lot of its inhabitants say that air pollution is less of a problem than in the past.
The historic center was built on what used to be an island in an ancient lake. It’s the oldest part of the city and includes the Zocalo, the largest public square in the Americans. There is an enormous Mexican flag in the center of the square.
The best way to see the most sights in the shortest time is to take the ‘Turibus’, a red, two-level bus similar to the double-decker buses in London, except that the top level has no roof. This means that you see the city better, but it also means that you need to wear lots of sun cream. A daily ticket allows you unlimited rides.
The amazing National Museum of Anthropology is located in the Chapultepec Park. It's perhaps the most famous of the city's museums and also one of the biggest. Other sights in the park include an amusement park, a forest with beautiful old trees and a large zoo with giant pandas.
Plaza Garibaldi always has street musicians playing traditional Mexican music. There’s also birria, a spicy goat meat soup sold at self-service restaurants in a large building just off the square.
Let's go to this exciting, beautiful city.
Read the text below to decide if each sentence is correct (True) or incorrect (False)._____________________________________________
1. Most travelers to Mexico spend a lot of time in Mexico City.
2. Mexico City is the capital of Mexico.
3. Air pollution is a problem in Mexico City.
4. The center of Mexico City used to be under water.
5. The Zocalo is the biggest public square in the world.
6. The Turibus is an efficient and convenient way to see the major sights.
7. Birria is a type of Mexican music.
True False
Read the text, answer the questions after the text
In the 1980s Julian Metcalfe and Sinclair Beecham spent a lot of time walking around London looking for a good, fast lunch. They never found one. So in 1986 they opened their own sandwich shop, Pret a Manger.
Today there are 150 Pret a Mangers in the UK and Hong Kong. Why have they become successful? Firstly, the food. Every night a van delivers fresh ingredients to the Pret a Manger stores. Early in the morning the chefs check the ingredients carefully, and then they make fresh sandwiches for the day. And these days it isn't only sandwiches. Pret a Manger sells many different types of food; it even includes sushi on the menu. Quality and care is important for the company. For people who want to know exactly what they are eating, its website gives information about each dish. For example, if you want to know how many calories are in a ham and cheese sandwich, you can find out.
Pret a Manger also does good things for the community. At the end of the day, charities take any extra unwanted food and give it to homeless people.
McDonald's owns 33% of the company, and this is one reason why people all over the world now know this trade name.
1. When did the first Pret a Manger open?
a. 1980 b. 1986 c. 1990
2. How is the food made?
b. by chefs in the sandwich shops every day
c. by chefs the night before
3. What does Pret a Manger sell?
a. only sandwiches
b. sandwiches and sushi
c. sandwiches, sushi and other types of food
4. How can you find information about the calories in each dish?
a. look on the website
b. ask the Pret a Manger workers
c. write to owners
5. What happens to the food that isn't eaten?
a. they throw it away
b. it is recycled
c. charities take it
Read the text, answer the questions after the text
Going to the Theater
Many big towns in England have professional theaters now. There are about 200 professional theaters in Great Britain but London is the center of theatrical activity. There are over thirty important theaters in the West End. The Royal Opera House at Covent Garden is the home of opera and ballet.
Some theaters stage ‘classics’ and serious drama. A lot of English people are fond of light comedy and musicals. They are very popular in England.
The evening performances begin at 7.30 or 8.00 p.m. There is a rush hour at this time in the West End. A lot of people come out of nearby underground stations, taxis and private cars drop theater-goers outside the entrance to each theatre. There is another rush hour when the performances are over.
It is certainly not easy to book a seat for a good play in London though the seats are not cheap. That is why some people prefer matinees (they start at 1-3 p.m.), but you will never see famous stars in these performances.
Complete the sentences based on the text.
1. There are over 200 professional theaters in Britain but London is
a________________.
2. The Royal Opera House is a_________.
3. A lot of English people are fond of________.
4. There is a rush hour in the West End_______.
5. It is not easy to book a seat for a good play in London, though___.
6. Some people prefer matinees but______.
a. not very serious performances.
b. theater center.
c. the tickets are very expensive.
d. after the working day.
e. they can't see famous actors there.
f. place where you can see ballet and opera performances.
Read the text. Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
The Exercise Craze
Old and young, men and women are jogging, dancing, jumping up and down, bending and stretching. Exercise is in fashion. Everybody wants to be fit, feel good, look slim, and stay young.
It started with jogging. Millions of Americans put on their new colored sports shoes and fashionable jogging suits and ran through the parks or along the streets for half an hour a day. Then the joggers got the marathon craze. Popular marathons are now held everywhere. Lots of people want to see if they can run 42 kms and do it faster than everyone else. The big city marathons, in London and New York, are important sporting events. Television cameras and newspapers report them in detail. Some remarkable people take part in the marathons: seventy-five year old grandfathers and nine year old grandchildren, and even disabled in wheelchairs.
But marathons are not for everyone. Some prefer to get fit at home. For them, there's a big choice of books, cassettes and video programmers with music and instructions. Sometimes the action is more like dancing than exercises. That's why one big company calls it 'Dancercise'.
Taking exercise is only one part of keeping fit. You've got to get slim too. Books and magazines about slimming are bestsellers and these days.
Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
1. Everybody is doing excercise, old and young, men and women.___
2. Millions of Americans ran through the parks or along the streets.
3. The big city marathons, in London and New York, are important
sporting events.___
4. Everyone takes part in marathons.____
5. People cannot get fit at home.____
Read the text. Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
Most British and American state schools provide their students with the option to eat lunch at school, but do they provide them with the option to eat well? Jamie Oliver is one of Britain's most popular stars. He's a young cook whose TV and cookery programs are watched by
millions. In his last TV series, he tried to make British school dinner both eatable and healthy. He showed just how poor many school diets were. Many of them contained too many fats and carbohydrates and not enough vitamins. His campaign to get tastier and healthier school meals called feed me better has caused politicians to take the problem seriously and promise to improve the quality of food on school dinner plates. Obesity is on the increase in all western countries. The biggest causes are bad diet and people being less active than they were in the past. Some people allege that schools also make the problem worse because they allow the sale of fizzy drinks and sugary snacks in school tuck shops and vending machines. Other people believe that advertising is to blame. UK politicians are promoting a voluntary agreement to stop junk food advertising at times when younger children watch the television.
1. Most teens don’t have healthy food at school______
2. Jamie Oliver is a famous school teacher._______
3. J. Oliver's aim is to change meals at schools.______
4. Teens are getting fatter in western countries._______
5. School canteens don't serve fast food.______
6. Adverts teach teens to eat fast food.______
Read the text. Say if the following statements are true (T) or false (F).
The pack of biscuits
One night there was a woman at the airport who had to wait for several hours before catching her next flight. While she waited she bought a book and a pack of biscuits to spend the time. She looked for a place to sit and waited. She was deep into her book, when suddenly she realized that there was a young man sitting next to her who was stretching his hand, with no concern whatsoever, and grabbing the pack of cookies lying between them. He started to eat them one by one. Not wanting to make a fuss about it, she decided to ignore him. The woman, slightly bothered, ate the cookies and watched the clock, while the young and shameless thief of biscuits was also finishing them. The woman started to get really angry at this point and thought, “If I wasn’t such a good and educated person, I would have given this daring man a black eye by now.” Every time she ate a biscuit, he had one too. The dialogue between their eyes continued and when only one biscuit was left, she wondered what was he going to do. Softly and with a nervous smile, the young man grabbed the last biscuit and broke it in two. He offered one half to the woman while he ate the other half. Briskly she took the biscuit and thought, “What an insolent man! How uneducated! He didn't even thank me!” She had never met anybody so fresh and sighed relieved to hear her flight announced. She grabbed her bags and went towards the boarding gate refusing to look back to where that insolent thief was. After boarding the plane and nicely seated, she looked for her book, which was nearly finished by now. While looking into her bag she was totally surprised to find her pack of biscuits nearly intact. "If my biscuits are here", she thought feeling terribly, "those others were his and he tried to share them with me. Too
late to apologize to the young man". She realized with pain, that it was her who had been insolent, uneducated and a thief, and not him!
Read the story and say if the statements are true (T), false (F) or not mentioned (NM).
1. A young woman at the airport had to wait for several hours before catching her next flight.
2. She bought a book and a pack of cookies.
3. She was reading the book, when suddenly she realized that a young man was eating her biscuits.
4. The woman and the man didn't want to talk to each other.
5. The man shared the last cookie with the woman.
| 6. The woman apologized to the young man. |
|
| Match the word and the translation. |
|
| but. intact |
|
| b. realize |
|
| from. impudent |
|
| e. arrogant, arrogant |
|
| f. lively, lively |
|
| h. bustle, noise |
|
Read the text, answer the questions after the text
The shoe box
A man and woman had been married for more than 60 years. They had shared everything. They had talked about everything. They had kept no secrets from each other except that the little: old woman had a shoebox in the top of her closet that she had cautioned her husband never to open or ask her about.
For all of these years, he had never thought about the box, but one day the little old woman got very sick and the doctor said she would not recover.
In trying to sort out their affairs, the little old man took down the shoebox and took it to his wife's bedside. She agreed that it was timethat he should know what was in the box. When he opened it, he found two knitted dolls and a stack of money totaling $95,000.
He asked her about the contents.
‘When we were to be married,’ she said, ‘my grandmother told me the secret of a happy marriage was to never argue. She told me that if I ever got angry with you, I should just keep quiet and knit a doll.’
The little old man was so moved; he had to fight back tears. Only two precious dolls were in the box. She had only been angry with him two times in all those years of living and loving. He almost burst with happiness.
‘Honey,’ he said, ‘that explains the dolls, but what about all of this money? Where did it come from?’
‘Oh,’ she said, ‘that’s the money I made from selling the dolls.’
Answer the questions.____________________
1. How long had a man and a woman been married?
2. Who had a little secret?
3. What kind of secret was it?
4. Why did the man take down the shoebox and take it to his wife's bedside?
5. What was in the box?
6. What secret did grandmother tell me the woman?
7. Do you think the woman often got angry with her husband? Why?
List of used literature:
Vaulina Yu., UMK "Spotlight-9" (Yu. Vaulina, V. Evans), Enlightenment, 2010.
Verbitskaya M.V., USE-2013. English language: thematic and standard examination options: 25 options / Ed. M.V. Verbitskaya. - M.: National Education Publishing House, 2012. - + CD. - (USE-2013. FIPI-school)
Verbitskaya M.V., USE-2013. English: active training: fulfillment of tasks A, B, C / Ed. M.V. Verbitskaya. - M.: Publishing house "National Education", 2012. - (USE-2013. FIPI-school)
Verbitskaya M.V., USE-2013 English language + CD / FIPI author-compiler: M.V. Verbitskaya– M.: Astrel, 2012
Klekovkina E., Textbook for preparing for the exam in English. Malcolm Mann, Steve Taylore Knowles, Elena Klekovkina. Macmillan. 2010
Klekovkina E., Collection of tests for preparing for the exam in English E. Klekovkina, Malcolm Mann, Steve Taylore-Knowles. Macmillan. 2010
Solovova EN, Methods of teaching foreign languages. Basic course. E.N. Solovova. 2008
Solovova E.N., State Exam.Maximiser. Preparation for Exams. E.N.Solovova, I.E. Solokova.Longnan. 2007
Trubaneva N.N., GIA-2013 Exam in a new form. English language. Grade 9 / FIPI authors-compilers: Trubaneva N.N., Babushis E.E., Spichko N.A. - M.: Astrel, 2012
www.reshuege.ru, site "I will solve the exam"
www.fipi.ru, site "Federal Institute of Pedagogical Measurements".
Application No. 1
What to do with unfamiliar words?
Get ready for the fact that you will meet unfamiliar words, and that's good. If you didn’t find new words in the book, then you’d better take a book with a more difficult level or on another topic.
Look it up in a dictionary only those words, without the meaning of which the general meaning is not clear sentences or passages of text. If you look into the dictionary for every unfamiliar word, then reading from pleasure will turn into torture.
Reading a paper book with a simple pencil in hand, underline unfamiliar words. Only after reading a certain number of pages write them out in a notebook, dictionary notebook, cards and see the meanings in the explanatory dictionary in English.
Be sure to pay attention to examples of use in specific sentences and idioms with this word.
When you write down an unfamiliar word or idiom, be sure to write down the whole offer, to remember word in the context.
Determine the parts of speech and the members of the sentence in it in order to remember which words and in what sequence are used with this or that word.
Application №2
Keys
2-T 3-F 4-F 5-F 6-T 7-
3 -e 4-a 5 -f 6-b
1 - e 2 - c 3-a 4-h 5-f 6-d 7-g 8-b
1-c 2-e 3-b 4-d 5-a
l-b 2-f 3-a 4-d 5-c 6-e
1-c 2-a 3-d 4-b
4 - c 5 - f 6 - e 7
3. an old woman had a shoebox in the top of her closet
4. the little old woman got very sick and the doctor said she would not recover.
5. two knitted dolls and $95,000
6. the secret of a happy marriage / She told that if the woman ever got angry with her husband, she should just keep quiet and knit a doll."
7. Yes, she made $95,000 from selling the dolls.
[key: 1. easily learned, 2. really valuable, 3. rarely beaten, 4. quickly growing, 5. surprisingly successful, 6. sadly disappearing, 7. extremely dangerous]
[key: 1. working out, 2. top, 3. basics, 4. online, 5. rapidly, 6. explosion, 7. phenomenon, 8. hit, 9. dominated, 10. got the better of, 11. circles, 12. die out, 13. pastimes, 14. dated from, 15. unique, 16. average]
[key: 1. got the better of, 2. unique, 3. online, 4. basics, 5. average, 6. hit]
[key: 1.A, 2.G, 3.F, 4.E, 5.C, 6.D]
[key: 1.F, 2.B, 3.A, 4.C, 5.G, 6.E, 7D]
[key: a. 4b. 6, p. 5d. 2, e. 1, f. 3]
[key: 1.C, 2.B, 3.G, 4.E, 5.A, 6.D]
What should be taken into account when completing tasks B11 - B16 (Word formation)?
When performing this task, check word formation skills- knowledge of the composition of the word and the main method of word formation - affixations, i.e. forming words using prefixes and suffixes. 
- After reading the sentence, translate it into Russian and determine what part of speech is missing. It can be a noun, a verb, verbal forms (, participle), an adjective, an adverb, a pronoun, a numeral. For example, if it is a noun, then the gap can be preceded by an article or an article or an adjective, if it is an adverb, then it usually comes after the verb, etc.
- Determine if a word has negative or positive value . In the case of a negative value, you need to choose the appropriate negative prefix or suffix for this word.
- Next, you need to change the word on the right and corresponding to the gap into the desired form. For example, in a sentence “It was a large-scale, program-controlled machine which could make a very complex _____. CALCULATE » the missing word is a noun, since the gap is preceded by an adjective with an article. Indefinite article indicates that the missing word is a singular noun - « calculation » .
- After completing the tasks, read the entire text again to make sure that the formed forms are correct. Transfer your answers to the Answer Sheet.
Take note!!!
To prepare for tasks B11-B16, repeat the prefixes and suffixes that are used to form different parts of speech. You can use the following resources:
Be sure to complete the word formation exercises in your school textbook. You can also use online resources:
What is the strategy for completing tasks A22-A28 (advanced level)?
Tasks A22-A28 belong to the higher levels. When performing them, knowledge of the vocabulary of the English language is checked, while the emphasis is on word compatibility. You are offered a text with gaps; for each missing word is presented multiple choice of four lexical items.
- Read all text to understand its general content. Look at the word options to fill in the gap.
For example, for an offer « She was too excited to do any _______ that morning » you are given the following words: BUT) homework ; B) household ; IN) housework ; G) housewife . Excluding options immediately B) And G): household - household, house, household; housewife - housekeeping . To choose the correct option from the remaining two, you need to know the meaning of the words: BUT) homework And IN) housework . home work - homework, lessons, homework. housework - Housework, housework. Therefore, the correct option is housework : She was too excited to do any household chores. .
- After completing the tasks, transfer the answers to the Answer Form.
Take note!!!
Of course, to perform tasks of increased complexity, you need to have good vocabulary. Need to know lexical compatibility words.
For the successful completion of tasks of increased complexity, it is necessary to repeat the sections of the school textbook, which present thematic vocabulary, phrasal verbs, set phrases, prepositional phrases. You need to practice doing multiple choice exercises. To do this, you can also refer to the Internet resources:
You should also have good spelling skills. Remember that if a spelling mistake is made, then the answer option is not counted. How to learn to write without spelling mistakes? The best way is to write dictations. For example, you can memorize a piece of text from an English textbook, and then reproduce it in writing, saying it out loud. Check the written text with the original.